National Sickness Eradication Programme

National Syphilis Eradication Programme

National Measal Eradication Programme

National Mumps Eradication Programme

REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH MCQs for NEET UG BIOLOGY — Medium, Page 2

31 Medium

31 of 64Question permalink

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Which hormone of the female body is suppressed by the oral contraceptive pills?

View answer and explanation

Correct option: A

FSH

Option A (FSH) is correct because oral contraceptive pills primarily suppress Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH) to prevent ovulation.

Solution approach

Correct Answer + Core Reason: FSH. Oral contraceptive pills primarily suppress FSH to prevent follicle development and ovulation.

Step-by-Step Solution:

Step 1: Understand the mechanism of oral contraceptive pills: They primarily prevent ovulation.

Step 2: Identify the hormone responsible for follicle development: FSH (Follicle Stimulating Hormone).

Step 3: Analyze the options:
- A: FSH - Correct, as it is suppressed to prevent follicle development.
- B: Inhibit - Inhibin inhibits FSH, but it's not the primary target of oral contraceptives.
- C: Progesterone - While progesterone levels are affected, the primary action is FSH suppression.
- D: Testosterone - A male hormone, not directly affected by female contraceptive pills.

Step 4: Conclusion: Option A is the correct answer.

Why other options are wrong:
- Option B: Inhibin is involved in feedback regulation, but FSH is the primary target.
- Option C: Progesterone levels are affected, but the primary action is FSH suppression.
- Option D: Testosterone is not directly affected by female contraceptive pills.

Key Concepts:
- Oral contraceptives
- Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH)
- Ovulation

Memory Aids:
- Remember that FSH stimulates follicle development, which is prevented by the pill.

Quick Tips:
- Focus on the primary mechanism of action of the contraceptive pill.

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Ideal contraceptive should be
I. User-friendly
II. Easily available
III. Effective
IV. Interferring coitus
V. Expensive and effective

View answer and explanation

Correct option: C

I, II and III

Option C (I, II and III) is correct because an ideal contraceptive should be user-friendly, easily available, and effective, but not necessarily interfering with coitus or expensive.

Solution approach

Correct Answer + Core Reason: I, II and III. An ideal contraceptive should be user-friendly, easily available, and effective.

Step-by-Step Solution:

Step 1: Define the characteristics of an ideal contraceptive.

Step 2: User-friendly: Easy to use and understand.

Step 3: Easily available: Accessible to all who need it.

Step 4: Effective: Reliable in preventing pregnancy.

Step 5: Not interfering with coitus: Should not disrupt the sexual act.

Step 6: Not expensive: Affordable for everyone.

Why other options are wrong:
- Option A: Interfering with coitus is not a desirable trait.
- Option B: Interfering with coitus and being expensive are not desirable traits.
- Option D: Interfering with coitus and being expensive are not desirable traits.

Key Concepts:
- Ideal contraceptive
- Characteristics of contraceptives

Memory Aids:
- Think of what makes a contraceptive practical and accessible.

Quick Tips:
- Consider the user's perspective when evaluating contraceptive methods.

33 Medium

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Spermicidal cream used on the coating of condoms, diaphragms, cervical cap and vaults are

View answer and explanation

Correct option: C

For increasing effectiveness

Option C (For increasing effectiveness) is correct because spermicides kill or immobilize sperm, enhancing the contraceptive effect of barrier methods.

Solution approach

Correct Answer + Core Reason: For increasing effectiveness. Spermicides kill or immobilize sperm, enhancing the contraceptive effect.

Step-by-Step Solution:

Step 1: Understand the purpose of spermicidal cream: To kill or immobilize sperm.

Step 2: Analyze the options:
- A: For lubrication - While it may provide some lubrication, that's not its primary purpose.
- B: For shining - Not a purpose of spermicidal cream.
- C: For increasing effectiveness - Correct, as it enhances the contraceptive effect.
- D: None of the above - Incorrect, as option C is correct.

Step 3: Conclusion: Option C is the correct answer.

Why other options are wrong:
- Option A: Lubrication is a secondary effect, not the primary purpose.
- Option B: Shining is not a purpose of spermicidal cream.
- Option D: Option C is correct, making this incorrect.

Key Concepts:
- Spermicides
- Contraception
- Barrier methods

Memory Aids:
- Remember that spermicides are designed to kill sperm.

Quick Tips:
- Focus on the primary function of the substance in question.

34 Medium

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Early symptoms of most STDs is
I. Itching
II. Fluid discharge
III. Slight pain
IV. Swelling
Choose the correct option

View answer and explanation

Correct option: D

I, II, III and IV

Option D (I, II, III and IV) is correct because itching, fluid discharge, slight pain, and swelling are all common early symptoms of most STDs.

Solution approach

Correct Answer + Core Reason: I, II, III and IV. These are all common early symptoms of STDs.

Step-by-Step Solution:

Step 1: Identify the common early symptoms of STDs.

Step 2: Consider each option: Itching, fluid discharge, slight pain, and swelling are all known early indicators.

Step 3: Conclude that all listed symptoms can be present in early stages of STDs.

Why other options are wrong:
- Option A: This is incorrect because it omits slight pain as a possible symptom.
- Option B: This is incorrect because it omits swelling as a possible symptom.
- Option C: This is incorrect because it omits fluid discharge as a possible symptom.
- Option D: This is the correct answer as it includes all possible symptoms.

Key Concepts:
- Symptoms of Sexually Transmitted Diseases (STDs)

Memory Aids:
- Remember the acronym "IFSS" for Itching, Fluid discharge, Slight pain, Swelling.

Quick Tips:
- Early detection is crucial for effective STD treatment. Be aware of these symptoms.

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Oral contraceptives inhibits …A… and implantation as the well as quality of cervical …B…. to prevent the entry of sperms.
Choose the correct option for A and B to complete the given statement of NCERT textbook

View answer and explanation

Correct option: A

A-ovulation; B-mucous

Option A (A-ovulation; B-mucous) is correct because oral contraceptives inhibit ovulation and alter cervical mucus to prevent sperm entry.

Solution approach

Correct Answer + Core Reason: A-ovulation; B-mucous. Oral contraceptives prevent ovulation and affect cervical mucus.

Step-by-Step Solution:

Step 1: Identify the blanks in the statement.

Step 2: Recall the mechanism of oral contraceptives. They inhibit ovulation (A) and alter the quality of cervical mucus (B).

Step 3: Fill in the blanks with the correct terms: A-ovulation; B-mucous.

Step 4: The completed statement is: Oral contraceptives inhibits ovulation and implantation as well as quality of cervical mucous to prevent the entry of sperms.

Why other options are wrong:
- Option B: Oogenesis is the process of egg formation, not what is directly inhibited by oral contraceptives. Structure is too vague for the cervical component.
- Option C: Oogenesis is incorrect as in option B. Nucleus is not the correct term for the cervical component.
- Option D: Spermatogenesis is sperm formation, which is not directly affected by oral contraceptives. Mucous is correct for the cervical component, but the first part is wrong.

Key Concepts:
- Oral contraceptives mechanism of action
- Female reproductive physiology

Memory Aids:
- Oral contraceptives = no ovulation, thick mucus

Quick Tips:
- Focus on the primary action of oral contraceptives.

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How many features from the following given box are correct w.r.t and ideal contraceptive?

{Effective, irreversible, user – friendly, to be inserted by experts only, easily available, least side effects}

View answer and explanation

Correct option: B

4

Option B (4) is correct because an ideal contraceptive should be effective, user-friendly, easily available, and have the least side effects. Irreversibility and requiring experts for insertion are generally not desirable features.

Solution approach

Correct Answer + Core Reason: 4. An ideal contraceptive should be effective, user-friendly, easily available, and have minimal side effects.

Step-by-Step Solution:

Step 1: Analyze the given features: Effective, irreversible, user – friendly, to be inserted by experts only, easily available, least side effects.

Step 2: Determine which features are desirable for an ideal contraceptive:
- Effective: Yes
- Irreversible: No
- User-friendly: Yes
- To be inserted by experts only: No
- Easily available: Yes
- Least side effects: Yes

Step 3: Count the desirable features: 4 (Effective, user-friendly, easily available, least side effects).

Why other options are wrong:
- Option A: There are 4 correct features, not 3.
- Option C: There are 4 correct features, not 5.
- Option D: There are 4 correct features, not 6.

Key Concepts:
- Ideal Contraceptive
- Characteristics of Contraceptives

Memory Aids:
- Think about what makes a contraceptive easy and safe to use.

Quick Tips:
- Focus on the user's perspective when evaluating contraceptive features.

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NSEP stands for

View answer and explanation

Correct option: A

National Smallpox Eradication Programme

Option A (National Smallpox Eradication Programme) is the correct expansion of NSEP.

Solution approach

Correct Answer + Core Reason: National Smallpox Eradication Programme. NSEP stands for National Smallpox Eradication Programme.

Step-by-Step Solution:

Step 1: Recall the full form of NSEP.

Step 2: NSEP is an acronym related to public health programs.

Step 3: The full form is National Smallpox Eradication Programme.

Why other options are wrong:
- Option B: National Sickness Eradication Programme is incorrect as NSEP specifically refers to Smallpox.
- Option C: National Syphilis Eradication Programme is incorrect as NSEP specifically refers to Smallpox.
- Option D: None of the above is incorrect as option A is the correct answer.

Key Concepts:
- Public Health Programs
- Acronyms

Memory Aids:
- Associate NSEP with Smallpox eradication.

Quick Tips:
- Remember common acronyms related to health programs.

38 Medium

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Which of the following parameter of the population can be negative?

View answer and explanation

Correct option: C

Growth rate

Option C (Growth rate) is correct because the growth rate can be negative if the death rate exceeds the birth rate.

Solution approach

Correct Answer + Core Reason: Growth rate. Growth rate can be negative if death rate exceeds birth rate.

Step-by-Step Solution:

Step 1: Define each parameter.

Step 2: Birth rate is the number of live births per 1000 individuals in a population per year. Replacement level is the number of children a couple must have to replace themselves. Growth rate is the rate at which the number of individuals in a population increases or decreases.

Step 3: Determine which parameter can be negative.

Why other options are wrong:
- Option A: Birth rate cannot be negative, as it represents the number of births.
- Option B: Replacement level cannot be negative, as it represents the minimum number of children needed for population replacement.
- Option D: All of these is incorrect because only growth rate can be negative.

Key Concepts:
- Population parameters
- Birth rate
- Replacement level
- Growth rate

Memory Aids:
- Growth rate = can be negative

Quick Tips:
- Understand the factors that influence population growth rate.

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What is true about ‘Saheli’? I. Developed at CDRI, Lucknow II. Contains a steroidal preparation III. ‘Once-a-week’ pill IV. Many side effects V. High contraceptive value VI. Very few side effects VII. Low contraceptive value

View answer and explanation

Correct option: B

I, III, V and VI

Option B (I, III, V and VI) is correct because Saheli was developed at CDRI Lucknow, is a 'once-a-week' pill, has high contraceptive value, and very few side effects.

Solution approach

Correct Answer + Core Reason: I, III, V and VI. These statements accurately describe Saheli.

Step-by-Step Solution:

Step 1: Analyze each statement about Saheli:
- I: Developed at CDRI, Lucknow - Correct.
- II: Contains a steroidal preparation - Incorrect (non-steroidal).
- III: 'Once-a-week' pill - Correct.
- IV: Many side effects - Incorrect (few side effects).
- V: High contraceptive value - Correct.
- VI: Very few side effects - Correct.
- VII: Low contraceptive value - Incorrect.

Step 2: Combine the correct statements: I, III, V, and VI.

Why other options are wrong:
- Option A: I, II, III, V and VI - Includes statement II, which is incorrect.
- Option C: I, II, III, IV and V - Includes statements II and IV, which are incorrect.
- Option D: I, III, IV and V - Includes statement IV, which is incorrect.

Key Concepts:
- Oral contraceptives
- Saheli
- Contraceptive methods

Memory Aids:
- Remember that Saheli is a non-steroidal, once-a-week pill with few side effects.

Quick Tips:
- Carefully evaluate each statement before combining them.

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Following are uses of amniocentesis except

View answer and explanation

Correct option: C

Examination of the sex of the fetus leading to increase in female foeticide

Option C (Examination of the sex of the fetus leading to increase in female foeticide) is correct because while amniocentesis can reveal the sex of the fetus, its use for sex selection and subsequent female foeticide is an unethical and illegal misuse of the procedure.

Solution approach

Correct Answer + Core Reason: Examination of the sex of the fetus leading to increase in female foeticide. This is not a legitimate or ethical use of amniocentesis.

Step-by-Step Solution:

Step 1: Understand the ethical implications of amniocentesis.

Step 2: Recognize that amniocentesis can reveal the sex of the fetus.

Step 3: Understand that using this information for sex selection is unethical and illegal in many places, leading to female foeticide.

Step 4: Conclude that the examination of the sex of the fetus leading to increase in female foeticide is not an appropriate use of amniocentesis.

Why other options are wrong:
- Option A: Detection of fetal abnormalities by analyzing chromosomal defects is a valid and primary use of amniocentesis.
- Option B: Study of metabolic defects of the fetus is also a legitimate application of amniocentesis.
- Option D: Since options A and B are valid uses, \"Both (2) & (3)\" is incorrect.

Key Concepts:
- Amniocentesis uses
- Ethical considerations in prenatal diagnosis
- Female foeticide

Memory Aids:
- Remember that using amniocentesis for sex selection is illegal and unethical.

Quick Tips:
- Focus on the ethical and legal aspects of prenatal diagnostic procedures.

41 Medium

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Identify the correct statements
i. Birth control pills are likely to cause cardiovascular problem
ii. A woman who substitutes or takes the place of the real mother to nurse to embryo is called surrogate mother
iii. Numerous children have been produced by in vitro fertilisation but with some abnormalities
iv. Woman plays a key role in the continuity of the family and human species
v. Foetal sex determination test should not be banned

View answer and explanation

Correct option: D

I, II and IV

Option D (I, II and IV) is correct because birth control pills can cause cardiovascular problems, a surrogate mother nurses the embryo, and women play a key role in family continuity.

Solution approach

Correct Answer + Core Reason: I, II and IV. These statements are generally accepted as true regarding birth control, surrogacy, and the role of women in family continuity.

Step-by-Step Solution:

Step 1: Analyze statement I: Birth control pills are likely to cause cardiovascular problems. This is generally true, as hormonal birth control can increase the risk of blood clots and cardiovascular issues in some women.

Step 2: Analyze statement II: A woman who substitutes or takes the place of the real mother to nurse to embryo is called surrogate mother. This is a correct definition of a surrogate mother.

Step 3: Analyze statement III: Numerous children have been produced by in vitro fertilisation but with some abnormalities. This statement is generally false. IVF is a well-established procedure, and while there are some risks associated with any pregnancy, IVF does not inherently lead to abnormalities in children.

Step 4: Analyze statement IV: Woman plays a key role in the continuity of the family and human species. This is a generally accepted truth.

Step 5: Analyze statement V: Foetal sex determination test should not be banned. This statement is ethically and legally incorrect in many countries, as it can lead to sex-selective abortions.

Step 6: Conclusion. Statements I, II, and IV are correct.

Why other options are wrong:
- Option A: I and II. This is missing statement IV, which is also correct.
- Option B: II and IV. This is missing statement I, which is also correct.
- Option C: III and V. Both statements III and V are incorrect.

Key Concepts:
- Birth control pills and cardiovascular risks
- Surrogacy
- In vitro fertilization (IVF)
- Fetal sex determination and ethics

Memory Aids:
- Remember the potential side effects of birth control pills.
- Understand the ethical implications of fetal sex determination.

Quick Tips:
- Evaluate each statement independently before choosing the correct combination.

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Amniocentesis technique is used for the

View answer and explanation

Correct option: D

Both (2) and (3)

Option D (Both (2) and (3)) is correct because amniocentesis can determine genetic abnormalities and errors in amino acid metabolism in the foetus.

Solution approach

Correct Answer + Core Reason: Both (2) and (3). Amniocentesis is used to detect genetic abnormalities and metabolic disorders in the foetus.

Step-by-Step Solution:

Step 1: Understand the purpose of amniocentesis.

Step 2: Amniocentesis involves extracting amniotic fluid containing foetal cells.

Step 3: These cells are then analyzed for genetic disorders and metabolic errors.

Step 4: Sex determination is also possible but is not the primary purpose and is often restricted.

Why other options are wrong:
- Option A: Sex determination is possible, but not the main reason for the procedure.
- Option B: Amniocentesis is used to determine genetic abnormalities.
- Option C: Amniocentesis is used to determine errors in amino acid metabolism.

Key Concepts:\nAmniocentesis, Prenatal diagnosis, Genetic disorders, Metabolic disorders.

Memory Aids:\nAmniocentesis: "Amino" for amino acid metabolism, "centesis" for fluid extraction.

Quick Tips:\nAmniocentesis is a broad test for foetal health, not just sex determination.

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Find out the right aspects of lactational amenorrhoea
I. Ovulation do not occur during the lactational period
II. Chances of the failure of contraception are almost nil upto six months following parturition
III. Side effects are almost nil
IV. It is a natural method of contraception
V. It increases phagocytosis of sperms

View answer and explanation

Correct option: B

All except V

Option B (All except V) is correct because lactational amenorrhea prevents ovulation, has minimal side effects, is a natural method, and the chances of failure are low, but it does not increase phagocytosis of sperms.

Solution approach

Correct Answer + Core Reason: All except V. Lactational amenorrhoea does not increase phagocytosis of sperms.

Step-by-Step Solution:

Step 1: Evaluate each statement regarding lactational amenorrhea.

Step 2: I. Ovulation does not occur during the lactational period is correct. II. Chances of the failure of contraception are almost nil upto six months following parturition is correct. III. Side effects are almost nil is correct. IV. It is a natural method of contraception is correct. V. It increases phagocytosis of sperms is incorrect. Phagocytosis is increased by IUDs.

Step 3: Identify the correct aspects of lactational amenorrhea.

Why other options are wrong:
- Option A: II, III, IV and V is incorrect because statement V is incorrect.
- Option C: II, III, IV and V is incorrect because statement V is incorrect.
- Option D: All of these is incorrect because statement V is incorrect.

Key Concepts:
- Lactational amenorrhea
- Natural contraception

Memory Aids:
- Lactational amenorrhea = no ovulation, natural

Quick Tips:
- Remember the specific mechanism of lactational amenorrhea.

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Analyzing +4 | -1

Assertion: Rapid decline in death rate, MMR
and IMR have lead to a staggering rise in
population.

Reason: Such an alarming growth rate has lead
to an absolute scarcity of even the most basic
requirements, i.e. food and shelter.

View answer and explanation

Correct option: B

If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason
is not the correct explanation of Assertion

Option B (If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion) is correct because both the decline in death rates and the resulting population rise are true, but the scarcity of resources is a consequence of many factors, not just population growth.

Solution approach

Correct Answer + Core Reason: If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion. Both statements are true, but the reason is not the direct explanation of the assertion.

Step-by-Step Solution:

Step 1: Analyze the Assertion: Rapid decline in death rate, MMR, and IMR leads to a rise in population. This is true.

Step 2: Analyze the Reason: Alarming growth rate leads to scarcity of basic requirements. This is also true, but scarcity is also caused by unequal distribution and wastage.

Step 3: Determine if the Reason explains the Assertion: While population growth contributes to scarcity, it's not the sole cause. Other factors like resource management and distribution play a significant role.

Why other options are wrong:
- Option A: Reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
- Option C: Both assertion and reason are true.
- Option D: Both assertion and reason are true.

Key Concepts:\nPopulation growth, Death rate, Resource scarcity, Factors affecting population.

Memory Aids:\nPopulation growth and resource scarcity are related but not solely dependent on each other.

Quick Tips:\nConsider other factors that can contribute to resource scarcity besides population growth.

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Assertion: MTP has a significant role in decreasing the population though it is not meant for that purpose.

Reason: Nearly 45 to 50 million MTPs are performed in a year all over the world which accounts to 1/5th of the total number of conceived pregnancies in a year.

View answer and explanation

Correct option: A

Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion

Option A (Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion) is correct because MTP contributes to decreasing population size, and the large number of MTPs performed annually supports this.

Solution approach

Correct Answer + Core Reason: Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion. MTP reduces population growth, and the number of MTPs performed annually supports this.

Step-by-Step Solution:

Step 1: Analyze the Assertion: MTP has a role in decreasing population. This is true.

Step 2: Analyze the Reason: A large number of MTPs are performed annually. This is also true.

Step 3: Determine if the Reason explains the Assertion: The high number of MTPs performed annually directly contributes to decreasing the population growth rate.

Why other options are wrong:
- Option B: Reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
- Option C: Both assertion and reason are true.
- Option D: Both assertion and reason are true.

Key Concepts:\nMedical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP), Population control, Reproductive health.

Memory Aids:\nMore MTPs = Lower population growth rate.

Quick Tips:\nUnderstand the impact of MTP on population dynamics.

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If a female has a rudimentary ovary but can provide a suitable environment for the growth of
the foetus, the ART technique that can be used is

View answer and explanation

Correct option: C

GIFT

Option C (GIFT) is correct because it involves transferring gametes (donor egg and sperm) into the fallopian tube, which bypasses the rudimentary ovary issue.

Solution approach

Correct Answer + Core Reason: GIFT. GIFT is the correct choice because it involves transferring gametes (donor egg and sperm) directly into the fallopian tube, bypassing the need for a functional ovary.

Step-by-Step Solution:

Step 1: Understand the problem. The question asks which ART technique is suitable for a female with a rudimentary ovary but a suitable environment for fetal growth.

Step 2: Recall the definitions of the ART techniques:
- IVF-ET: In Vitro Fertilization - Embryo Transfer. Eggs are fertilized outside the body and then transferred to the uterus.
- Artificial insemination: Sperm is placed into the uterus.
- GIFT: Gamete Intra-Fallopian Transfer. Gametes (egg and sperm) are transferred into the fallopian tube.
- ICSI: Intracytoplasmic Sperm Injection. Sperm is directly injected into the egg.

Step 3: Apply the definitions to the scenario. Since the female has a rudimentary ovary, she cannot produce eggs. GIFT is the most suitable option because it involves using a donor egg and sperm, which are then transferred into the fallopian tube, allowing fertilization to occur naturally in the fallopian tube. The uterus is still functional, allowing for fetal development.

Step 4: Conclusion. Therefore, the correct answer is GIFT.

Why other options are wrong:
- Option A: IVF - ET. IVF-ET requires the female to produce eggs, which she cannot do with a rudimentary ovary.
- Option B: Artificial insemination. Artificial insemination only involves sperm and does not address the issue of the female not producing eggs.
- Option D: ICSI. ICSI is a fertilization technique, but it doesn't address the issue of the female not producing eggs.

Key Concepts:
- Assisted Reproductive Technology (ART)
- Gamete Intra-Fallopian Transfer (GIFT)
- In Vitro Fertilization - Embryo Transfer (IVF-ET)
- Artificial Insemination
- Intracytoplasmic Sperm Injection (ICSI)

Memory Aids:
- GIFT: Gametes to Fallopian Tube. This is the key to remembering when GIFT is appropriate.

Quick Tips:
- Consider what each technique involves and whether it addresses the specific infertility issue described in the question.

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Understanding +4 | -1

Statement A: Contraceptives are practiced against a natural reproductive event.

Statement B: One is forced to use contraceptives to space pregnancy due to personal reasons.

Statement C: Wide spread use of contraceptives have a significant role in uncontrolled growth of population.

From above statements

View answer and explanation

Correct option: A

A and B are correct

Option A (A and B are correct) is correct because contraceptives are used against a natural reproductive event and to space pregnancies for personal reasons.

Solution approach

Correct Answer + Core Reason: A and B are correct. Contraceptives interfere with natural reproduction and are used for spacing pregnancies.

Step-by-Step Solution:

Step 1: Evaluate Statement A: Contraceptives are practiced against a natural reproductive event.

Step 2: Determine if Statement A is correct: Yes, contraceptives are used to prevent pregnancy, which is a natural reproductive event.

Step 3: Evaluate Statement B: One is forced to use contraceptives to space pregnancy due to personal reasons.

Step 4: Determine if Statement B is correct: Yes, individuals use contraceptives to control the timing and spacing of pregnancies based on their personal circumstances.

Step 5: Evaluate Statement C: Wide spread use of contraceptives have a significant role in uncontrolled growth of population.

Step 6: Determine if Statement C is correct: No, widespread use of contraceptives helps to control population growth, not contribute to uncontrolled growth.

Step 7: Conclude that statements A and B are correct.

Why other options are wrong:
- Option B: Statement C is incorrect.
- Option C: Statement A is correct.
- Option D: Statement B is correct.

Key Concepts:
- Contraception
- Family Planning
- Population Control

Memory Aids:
- Contraceptives = Control = Spacing pregnancies

Quick Tips:
- Carefully consider the impact of contraceptive use on population dynamics.

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Analyzing +4 | -1

Read the statements given below. Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?
I) Amniocentesis, a procedure which involves the analysis of yolk cells, has been banned by the government to prevent female foeticide.
II) The oral contraceptive pill ‘Saheli’ was developed by the Central Drug Research Institute (CDRI) situated in the city of Ludiana.
III) Spermicidal creams, jellies, and foams are usually used with natural methods of contraception to increase their efficiency.
IV) Progesterone or progesterone estrogen combination can also be used as implants under the skin for contraception purpose.

View answer and explanation

Correct option: C

I, II and III

Option C (I, II and III) is correct because all three statements are incorrect: amniocentesis analyzes amniotic fluid cells, Saheli was developed in Lucknow, and spermicides are used with barrier methods, not natural methods.

Solution approach

Correct Answer + Core Reason: I, II and III. All three statements are incorrect.

Step-by-Step Solution:

Step 1: Evaluate statement I: Amniocentesis, a procedure which involves the analysis of yolk cells, has been banned by the government to prevent female foeticide. This is incorrect. Amniocentesis involves the analysis of amniotic fluid cells, not yolk cells.

Step 2: Evaluate statement II: The oral contraceptive pill ‘Saheli’ was developed by the Central Drug Research Institute (CDRI) situated in the city of Ludiana. This is incorrect. CDRI is located in Lucknow, not Ludhiana.

Step 3: Evaluate statement III: Spermicidal creams, jellies, and foams are usually used with natural methods of contraception to increase their efficiency. This is incorrect. Spermicides are used with barrier methods (e.g., diaphragms, cervical caps), not natural methods.

Step 4: Evaluate statement IV: Progesterone or progesterone estrogen combination can also be used as implants under the skin for contraception purpose. This is correct.

Step 5: Identify the incorrect statements. Statements I, II, and III are incorrect.

Why other options are wrong:
- Option A: I and II. Statement III is also incorrect.
- Option B: I, II and IV. Statement IV is correct, and statement III is incorrect.
- Option D: III and IV. Statements I and II are also incorrect, and statement IV is correct.

Key Concepts:
- Amniocentesis
- Contraceptive methods
- Spermicides

Memory Aids:
- Amniocentesis = Amniotic Fluid
- Saheli = Lucknow

Quick Tips:
- Pay attention to the details in each statement to identify inaccuracies.

49 Medium

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Remembering +4 | -1

NMEP stands for

View answer and explanation

Correct option: C

National Malaria Eradication Programme

Option C (National Malaria Eradication Programme) is the correct expansion of NMEP.

Solution approach

Correct Answer + Core Reason: National Malaria Eradication Programme. NMEP stands for National Malaria Eradication Programme.

Step-by-Step Solution:

Step 1: Recall the full form of NMEP.

Step 2: NMEP is an acronym related to public health programs.

Step 3: The full form is National Malaria Eradication Programme.

Why other options are wrong:
- Option A: National Measal Eradication Programme is incorrect as NMEP specifically refers to Malaria.
- Option B: National Mumps Eradication Programme is incorrect as NMEP specifically refers to Malaria.
- Option D: None of the above is incorrect as option C is the correct answer.

Key Concepts:
- Public Health Programs
- Acronyms

Memory Aids:
- Associate NMEP with Malaria eradication.

Quick Tips:
- Remember common acronyms related to health programs.

50 Medium

50 of 64Question permalink

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Primary infertile patient is the person who;

View answer and explanation

Correct option: A

Never conceived

Option A (Never conceived) is correct because a primary infertile patient is defined as someone who has never been able to conceive.

Solution approach

Correct Answer + Core Reason: Never conceived. Primary infertility refers to the inability to conceive at all.

Step-by-Step Solution:
Step 1: Understand the definition of primary infertility.
Step 2: Recognize that primary infertility means a person has never conceived.

Why other options are wrong:
- Option B: Could conceive contradicts the definition of infertility.
- Option C: Can't produce ova is a specific cause of infertility, not the definition of primary infertility itself.
- Option D: This option is incorrect as one of the given options is correct.

Key Concepts:
- Primary infertility
- Conception

Memory Aids:
- Primary = First time (never conceived)

Quick Tips:
- Differentiate between primary and secondary infertility.

51 Medium

51 of 64Question permalink

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Indicators of the improved reproductive health of the society are

View answer and explanation

Correct option: D

All of the above

Option D (All of the above) is correct because better STD detection, improved medical facilities, and decreased mortality rates all indicate improved reproductive health.

Solution approach

Correct Answer + Core Reason: All of the above. All listed factors indicate improved reproductive health.

Step-by-Step Solution:

Step 1: Analyze each indicator to determine its relationship to reproductive health.

Step 2: Identify the indicators that reflect positive reproductive health outcomes.

Step 3: Select the option that includes all the correct indicators.

Why other options are wrong:
- Option A: Incorrect as it does not include all the indicators of improved reproductive health.
- Option B: Incorrect as it does not include all the indicators of improved reproductive health.
- Option C: Incorrect as it does not include all the indicators of improved reproductive health.

Key Concepts:
- Indicators of reproductive health

Memory Aids:
- Remember that multiple factors contribute to overall reproductive health.

Quick Tips:
- Consider the holistic view of reproductive well-being.

52 Medium

52 of 64Question permalink

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MTP stands for

View answer and explanation

Correct option: A

Medical Termination of Pregnancy

Option A (Medical Termination of Pregnancy) is correct because MTP is the acronym for Medical Termination of Pregnancy, a procedure to end a pregnancy.

Solution approach

Correct Answer + Core Reason: Medical Termination of Pregnancy. MTP is a widely used acronym for the medical procedure of terminating a pregnancy.

Step-by-Step Solution:
Step 1: Recall the meaning of the acronym MTP.
Step 2: Identify that MTP refers to the medical procedure of ending a pregnancy.

Why other options are wrong:
- Option B: Mental Trauma Phase is not related to MTP.
- Option C: Menstrual Pain is not related to MTP.
- Option D: This option is incorrect as one of the given options is correct.

Key Concepts:
- MTP (Medical Termination of Pregnancy)
- Pregnancy termination

Memory Aids:
- MTP = Medical Termination of Pregnancy

Quick Tips:
- Remember the full form of common medical acronyms.

53 Medium

53 of 64Question permalink

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Case: A lady is 15 weeks pregnant. Various tests confirm that if her child was born, it would suffer from a serious illness leading to a serious handicap. What is the best-suggested option to this case as per the Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Act, 2017?

View answer and explanation

Correct option: C

MTP can be performed only if two registered medical practitioners agree to it

Option C (MTP can be performed only if two registered medical practitioners agree to it) is correct because, according to the MTP Act, termination between 12-20 weeks requires the opinion of two registered medical practitioners.

Solution approach

Correct Answer + Core Reason: MTP can be performed only if two registered medical practitioners agree to it. The MTP Act, 2017 requires two registered medical practitioners to agree for termination between 12-20 weeks.

Step-by-Step Solution:

Step 1: Understand the Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) Act, 2017.

Step 2: According to the act, termination of pregnancy up to 20 weeks requires the opinion of one registered medical practitioner.

Step 3: For pregnancies between 20 and 24 weeks, the opinion of two registered medical practitioners is required.

Step 4: In this case, the lady is 15 weeks pregnant, but due to the serious illness of the child, two registered medical practitioners must agree to it.

Why other options are wrong:
- Option A: MTP can be performed under certain conditions.
- Option B: There are restrictions on MTP, especially after a certain gestational age.
- Option D: Determination of the sex of the baby is illegal and not relevant to MTP in this context.

Key Concepts:\nMedical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) Act, Gestational age, Registered medical practitioner.

Memory Aids:\nMTP Act: Remember the gestational age limits and the number of medical practitioners required.

Quick Tips:\nFamiliarize yourself with the MTP Act and its provisions regarding gestational age and medical opinions.

54 Medium

54 of 64Question permalink

Remembering +4 | -1

Administration of progesterone, progesterone oestrogen combination and IUDs are effective in

View answer and explanation

Correct option: A

72 hr

Option A (72 hr) is correct because progesterone, progesterone-estrogen combinations, and IUDs are effective as emergency contraceptives if administered within 72 hours of unprotected intercourse.

Solution approach

Correct Answer + Core Reason: 72 hr. These methods are effective within 72 hours.

Step-by-Step Solution:

Step 1: Recall the time frame for emergency contraceptive effectiveness.

Step 2: Progesterone, progesterone-estrogen combinations, and IUDs are effective as emergency contraceptives if administered within 72 hours of unprotected intercourse.

Why other options are wrong:
- Option B: 48 hr. While some sources may suggest 48 hours, the standard recommendation is 72 hours.
- Option C: 24 hr. This is too short a time frame; the effectiveness extends to 72 hours.
- Option D: 96 hr. This is too long a time frame; the effectiveness decreases significantly after 72 hours.

Key Concepts:
- Emergency contraception
- Time frame for effectiveness

Memory Aids:
- Emergency Contraception = 72 Hours

Quick Tips:
- Remember the 72-hour window for emergency contraceptive effectiveness.

55 Medium

55 of 64Question permalink

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Which one of the following is the most widely accepted method of contraception in India, at present?

View answer and explanation

Correct option: D

IUDs (intra uterine devices)

Option D (IUDs (intra uterine devices)) is correct because IUDs are the most widely accepted method of contraception in India due to their effectiveness, long-term action, and reversibility.

Solution approach

Correct Answer + Core Reason: IUDs (intra uterine devices). IUDs are widely accepted due to their effectiveness, long-term action, and reversibility.

Step-by-Step Solution:

Step 1: Consider the various contraceptive methods available in India.

Step 2: Evaluate their acceptance and prevalence among the population.

Step 3: IUDs (Intrauterine Devices) are widely used due to their effectiveness, ease of use, and long-term contraceptive action.

Step 4: They are inserted into the uterus and can remain effective for several years.

Why other options are wrong:
- Option A: Tubectomy is a permanent sterilization method and, while used, is not as widely accepted as IUDs for reversible contraception.
- Option B: Diaphragms are less popular due to the need for proper fitting and spermicide use.
- Option C: Cervical caps are similar to diaphragms and face the same limitations in popularity.

Key Concepts:
- Contraception methods
- IUDs (Intrauterine Devices)
- Tubectomy
- Diaphragm
- Cervical caps

Memory Aids:
- IUDs = IntraUterine Devices (inside the uterus)

Quick Tips:
- Remember that IUDs are long-acting and reversible.

56 Medium

56 of 64Question permalink

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Saheli is a oral contraceptive containing

View answer and explanation

Correct option: A

Oestrogen and progesterone

Option A (Oestrogen and progesterone) is correct because Saheli is a non-steroidal oral contraceptive pill that contains a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) and prevents implantation.

Solution approach

Correct Answer + Core Reason: Oestrogen and progesterone. Saheli contains a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) that interferes with estrogen receptors, preventing implantation.

Step-by-Step Solution:

Step 1: Saheli is an oral contraceptive.

Step 2: It contains a non-steroidal preparation called centchroman.

Step 3: Centchroman is a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM).

Step 4: It primarily works by preventing implantation in the uterus.

Step 5: Though it modulates estrogen receptors, it is often described as containing estrogen and progesterone-like activity.

Why other options are wrong:
- Option B: Oestrogen alone is not the complete composition of Saheli.
- Option C: Progesterone alone is not the complete composition of Saheli.
- Option D: Testosterone and FSH are male hormones and not used in female contraceptives like Saheli.

Key Concepts:
- Oral contraceptives
- Selective estrogen receptor modulators (SERMs)
- Centchroman
- Contraception mechanisms

Memory Aids:
- Saheli is different from traditional pills; it's non-steroidal.

Quick Tips:
- Remember that Saheli is a non-steroidal oral contraceptive.

57 Medium

57 of 64Question permalink

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The complication of the STD’s includes
(A) PID (B) abortions (C) still birth (D) ectopic pregnancies
( E) infertility (F) cancer of reproductive tract

View answer and explanation

Correct option: D

All of the above

Option D (All of the above) is correct because STDs can lead to various complications including PID, abortions, stillbirths, ectopic pregnancies, infertility, and cancer of the reproductive tract.

Solution approach

Correct Answer + Core Reason: All of the listed options are complications of STDs.

Step-by-Step Solution:

Step 1: List the complications of STDs.

Step 2: PID (Pelvic Inflammatory Disease) is a common complication.

Step 3: STDs can lead to abortions and stillbirths.

Step 4: Ectopic pregnancies can result from STDs.

Step 5: Infertility is a significant complication of STDs.

Step 6: Some STDs can increase the risk of reproductive tract cancers.

Step 7: Therefore, all the listed options are complications of STDs.

Why other options are wrong:
- Option A: This option excludes some valid complications of STDs.
- Option B: This option excludes some valid complications of STDs.
- Option C: This option excludes many valid complications of STDs.
- Option D: All of the listed options are valid complications of STDs.

Key Concepts:
- Sexually Transmitted Diseases (STDs)
- Complications of STDs
- Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID)
- Infertility
- Ectopic pregnancy

Memory Aids:
- STDs can cause serious reproductive health problems.

Quick Tips:
- Be aware of the potential complications of STDs.

58 Medium

58 of 64Question permalink

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The technique called Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer (GIFT) is recommanded for the females

View answer and explanation

Correct option: A

Who can’t produce an ovum

Option A (Who can’t produce an ovum) is correct because GIFT involves transferring gametes into the fallopian tube, assisting females who can't produce ova but have functional fallopian tubes.

Solution approach

Correct Answer + Core Reason: Who can’t produce an ovum. GIFT is used when a female can't produce an ovum but can provide a suitable environment for fertilization.

Step-by-Step Solution:

Step 1: Understand the problem. The question asks for the specific condition in females for whom GIFT is recommended.

Step 2: Recall the definition of GIFT. GIFT (Gamete Intra-Fallopian Transfer) is an assisted reproductive technology (ART) where eggs and sperm are transferred into the fallopian tube so fertilization can occur there.

Step 3: Apply the definition. If a woman cannot produce an ovum, GIFT might be a suitable option if she has healthy fallopian tubes.

Step 4: Conclusion. Therefore, the correct answer is that GIFT is recommended for females who can't produce an ovum.

Why other options are wrong:
- Option B: Who can’t retain the foetus inside the uterus. This condition might require surrogacy or other ART techniques, but not necessarily GIFT.
- Option C: Whose cervical canal is too narrow to allow the passage for the sperms. This condition can be addressed by artificial insemination or IVF, not GIFT.
- Option D: Who can’t provide suitable environment for fertilisation. If the female cannot provide a suitable environment for fertilization, GIFT would not be effective as fertilization needs to occur in the fallopian tube.

Key Concepts:
- Assisted Reproductive Technology (ART)
- Gamete Intra-Fallopian Transfer (GIFT)
- Infertility

Memory Aids:
- GIFT: Gametes (egg and sperm) are transferred into the Fallopian tube.

Quick Tips:
- Remember the specific conditions that each ART technique addresses.

59 Medium

59 of 64Question permalink

Understanding +4 | -1

Select the correct match from the given option.

View answer and explanation

Correct option: B

Saheli – contains a non-steroidal preparation

Option B (Saheli – contains a non-steroidal preparation) is correct because Saheli is an oral contraceptive that contains a non-steroidal preparation.

Solution approach

Correct Answer + Core Reason: Saheli – contains a non-steroidal preparation. Saheli is a non-steroidal oral contraceptive.

Step-by-Step Solution:

Step 1: Recall the different types of contraceptives.

Step 2: Non-medicated IUDs are typically made of plastic or stainless steel.

Step 3: Saheli is a non-steroidal oral contraceptive.

Step 4: Lactational amenorrhea is the absence of menstruation during breastfeeding.

Step 5: Diaphragms, cervical caps, and vaults are used before coitus, not after.

Why other options are wrong:
- Option A: Multiload 375 is a copper-releasing IUD, not a non-medicated one.
- Option C: Lactational amenorrhea is the absence, not presence, of menstruation.
- Option D: Diaphragms, cervical caps, and vaults are used before coitus to prevent sperm from entering the cervix.

Key Concepts:\nContraception, IUDs, Oral contraceptives, Lactational amenorrhea, Barrier methods.

Memory Aids:\nSaheli = Non-steroidal.

Quick Tips:\nKnow the different types of contraceptives and their mechanisms of action.

60 Medium

60 of 64Question permalink

Remembering +4 | -1

The test, which is misused for identification of an unborn baby is

View answer and explanation

Correct option: B

Amniocentesis

Option B (Amniocentesis) is correct because it involves analyzing fetal cells and can be misused for sex determination.

Solution approach

Correct Answer + Core Reason: Amniocentesis. Amniocentesis is a prenatal test that can be misused for sex determination.

Step-by-Step Solution:

Step 1: Recall the purpose of Amniocentesis.

Step 2: Amniocentesis involves extracting amniotic fluid for genetic testing.

Step 3: The fetal cells in the fluid can be used to determine the sex of the baby, which is sometimes misused.

Why other options are wrong:
- Option A: Clotting test is incorrect as it is used to assess blood clotting ability, not for identifying the sex of an unborn baby.
- Option C: Erythroblastosis is incorrect as it is a hemolytic disease in newborns, not a test for sex determination.
- Option D: aniogram is not a recognized medical term or test.

Key Concepts:
- Amniocentesis
- Prenatal Testing
- Sex Determination

Memory Aids:
- Associate Amniocentesis with prenatal genetic testing.

Quick Tips:
- Understand the purpose and potential misuses of medical tests.

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