National Smallpox Control Programme

National Fever Control Programme

Transfer of embryo into the uterus

Transfer of mixture of sperms and ova into the fallopian tube

Transfer of mixture of sperms and ova into the uterus

REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH MCQs for NEET UG BIOLOGY — Medium

1 Medium

1 of 64Question permalink

Understanding +4 | -1

Misuse of amniocentesis results in

View answer and explanation

Correct option: B

Female foeticide

Option B (Female foeticide) is correct because the misuse of amniocentesis primarily leads to the abortion of female fetuses after sex determination.

Solution approach

Correct Answer + Core Reason: Female foeticide. Misuse of amniocentesis is primarily for aborting female fetuses.

Step-by-Step Solution:

Step 1: Understand the misuse of amniocentesis for sex determination.

Step 2: Recognize the societal preference for male children in some regions.

Step 3: Identify the consequence of this preference when combined with sex determination.

Why other options are wrong:
- Option A: Incorrect because the primary misuse is to abort female fetuses, not male fetuses.
- Option C: Incorrect because the primary misuse is specifically targeted towards female foeticide due to societal preferences.
- Option D: Incorrect because amniocentesis misuse does have a direct consequence.

Key Concepts:
- Misuse of prenatal diagnostic tests
- Female foeticide

Memory Aids:
- Associate amniocentesis misuse with the abortion of female fetuses.

Quick Tips:
- Understand the social and ethical implications of medical technologies.

2 Medium

2 of 64Question permalink

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Amniocentesis is a technique used to

View answer and explanation

Correct option: C

Determine any hereditary genetic abnormality in embryo

Option C (Determine any hereditary genetic abnormality in embryo) is correct because amniocentesis is primarily used for detecting genetic disorders in the developing fetus.

Solution approach

Correct Answer + Core Reason: Determine any hereditary genetic abnormality in embryo. Amniocentesis is a prenatal diagnostic technique used to identify genetic abnormalities.

Step-by-Step Solution:

Step 1: Understand the purpose of amniocentesis. Amniocentesis involves extracting amniotic fluid surrounding the fetus.

Step 2: Analyze the components of amniotic fluid. The fluid contains fetal cells, which can be analyzed for chromosomal and genetic abnormalities.

Step 3: Relate the analysis to genetic disorders. The analysis can detect conditions like Down syndrome, cystic fibrosis, and other hereditary genetic abnormalities.

Step 4: Conclude that amniocentesis is used to determine hereditary genetic abnormalities.

Why other options are wrong:
- Option A: While amniocentesis can indirectly reveal some metabolic errors, it is not its primary function. Metabolic errors are usually detected through other specific tests.
- Option B: Amniocentesis is not directly used to pinpoint specific cardiac ailments. Cardiac issues are typically diagnosed using ultrasound or fetal echocardiography.
- Option D: Since options A and B are not the primary uses, \"All of these\" is incorrect.

Key Concepts:
- Prenatal diagnosis
- Genetic abnormalities
- Amniocentesis procedure

Memory Aids:
- Amniocentesis: \"Amino\" for amniotic fluid, \"centesis\" for puncture. Think of it as a puncture to analyze the fluid for genetic info.

Quick Tips:
- Remember that amniocentesis is a genetic test, not a general health test.

3 Medium

3 of 64Question permalink

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Tubectomy

View answer and explanation

Correct option: C

prevents fertilization

Option C (prevents fertilization) is correct because tubectomy involves blocking the fallopian tubes, preventing the egg and sperm from meeting.

Solution approach

Correct Answer + Core Reason: prevents fertilization. Tubectomy blocks the fallopian tubes, preventing sperm from reaching the egg.

Step-by-Step Solution:

Step 1: Define tubectomy.

Step 2: Recall that tubectomy is a surgical sterilization procedure for females.

Step 3: Understand that it involves cutting and sealing the fallopian tubes.

Step 4: Recognize that this prevents the egg from traveling to the uterus and sperm from reaching the egg, thus preventing fertilization.

Why other options are wrong:
- Option A: Tubectomy does not directly prevent implantation. It prevents fertilization from occurring in the first place.
- Option B: Tubectomy does not directly prevent foetus development. It prevents fertilization.
- Option D: Since A and B are incorrect, D is also incorrect.

Key Concepts:
- Tubectomy
- Female Sterilization
- Fertilization

Memory Aids:
- Tubectomy = Tubes blocked = No fertilization

Quick Tips:
- Focus on the primary mechanism of action for each contraceptive method.

4 Medium

4 of 64Question permalink

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In India, there is decline in female population as compared to males, this is because of

View answer and explanation

Correct option: C

Female infanticide

Option C (Female infanticide) is correct because it is a major factor contributing to the decline in the female population compared to males in India.

Solution approach

Correct Answer + Core Reason: Female infanticide. This practice directly reduces the number of female children.

Step-by-Step Solution:

Step 1: Identify the problem: The question asks for the reason behind the decline in the female population in India.

Step 2: Consider the options: Evaluate each option based on its plausibility and relevance to the problem.

Step 3: Analyze the options:
- A: Less female reach reproductive age - This is not the primary reason.
- B: Number of female children are born less as there is more chance of prenatal death in case of female child - While prenatal deaths can occur, it's not the main driver of the population decline.
- C: Female infanticide - This is a known and documented issue in certain regions of India.
- D: All of the above - This is incorrect as not all options are equally significant.

Step 4: Conclusion: Female infanticide is the most significant factor.

Why other options are wrong:
- Option A: Less female reach reproductive age is not the primary cause of the decline.
- Option B: While prenatal deaths exist, they are not the main reason for the disparity.
- Option D: Not all options are equally significant; female infanticide is the most direct cause.

Key Concepts:
- Population demographics
- Social issues in India
- Female infanticide

Memory Aids:
- Remember that infanticide directly reduces the population.

Quick Tips:
- Consider the most direct and impactful cause when answering such questions.

5 Medium

5 of 64Question permalink

Understanding +4 | -1

What is the purpose of contraceptive pills?
I. They inhibit ovulation and implantation
II. They alter the quality of cervical mucous to prevent or retard the entry of sperms
III. They prevent the ejaculated semen from entering the female vagina
IV. They inhibit spermatogenesis

View answer and explanation

Correct option: C

I and II

Option C (I and II) is correct because contraceptive pills inhibit ovulation and implantation, and alter the quality of cervical mucus to prevent sperm entry.

Solution approach

Correct Answer + Core Reason: I and II. Contraceptive pills inhibit ovulation and implantation and alter cervical mucus quality.

Step-by-Step Solution:

Step 1: Analyze the function of contraceptive pills.

Step 2: They inhibit ovulation by suppressing gonadotropin release.

Step 3: They alter the quality of cervical mucus, making it hostile to sperm entry.

Step 4: They also prevent or retard implantation of the blastocyst.

Step 5: They do not prevent ejaculated semen from entering the female vagina (III is incorrect).

Step 6: They do not directly inhibit spermatogenesis (IV is incorrect).

Why other options are wrong:
- Option A: Statement III and IV are incorrect.
- Option B: Statement III and IV are incorrect.
- Option D: Statement III and IV are incorrect.

Key Concepts:
- Contraceptive pills
- Mechanism of action
- Ovulation inhibition
- Cervical mucus alteration
- Implantation prevention

Memory Aids:
- Pills affect ovulation, mucus, and implantation.

Quick Tips:
- Understand the multiple mechanisms of contraceptive pills.

6 Medium

6 of 64Question permalink

Remembering +4 | -1

Disease or infections which are transmitted through sexual intercourse are called

View answer and explanation

Correct option: D

All of the above

Option D (All of the above) is correct because sexually transmitted diseases (STDs), venereal diseases (VD), and reproductive tract infections (RTIs) are all terms used to describe infections transmitted through sexual intercourse.

Solution approach

Correct Answer + Core Reason: All of the above. STDs, VDs, and RTIs all refer to infections transmitted through sexual intercourse.

Step-by-Step Solution:

Step 1: Understand the definitions of STDs, VDs, and RTIs.

Step 2: Recognize that all three terms describe diseases or infections transmitted through sexual contact.

Why other options are wrong:
- Option A: This is incorrect because it doesn't include all the correct terms.
- Option B: This is incorrect because it doesn't include all the correct terms.
- Option C: This is incorrect because it doesn't include all the correct terms.
- Option D: This is the correct answer as it includes all the correct terms.

Key Concepts:
- Terminology related to sexually transmitted infections

Memory Aids:
- STD, VD, and RTI are interchangeable terms in many contexts.

Quick Tips:
- Be familiar with the different terms used to describe sexually transmitted infections.

7 Medium

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In delaying pregnancy or spacing among children, the ideal contraceptive is

View answer and explanation

Correct option: A

IUD

Option A (IUD) is correct because IUDs are effective for long-term contraception and spacing between children.

Solution approach

Correct Answer + Core Reason: IUD. IUDs are effective for long-term contraception and spacing between children.

Step-by-Step Solution:

Step 1: Consider the requirements for delaying pregnancy or spacing among children.

Step 2: The ideal contraceptive should be effective for a longer duration and easily reversible when pregnancy is desired. IUDs are suitable for this purpose.

Step 3: Evaluate the given options.

Why other options are wrong:
- Option B: Natural method is less reliable for consistent contraception.
- Option C: Oral contraceptive requires daily administration and may have side effects.
- Option D: Pills are similar to oral contraceptives and require daily administration.

Key Concepts:
- Contraceptive methods
- IUDs

Memory Aids:
- IUD = long-term, reversible

Quick Tips:
- Consider the duration of action and reversibility when choosing a contraceptive.

8 Medium

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Remembering +4 | -1

Later complications of STDs are
I. Pelvic inflammation disease
II. Abortion
III. Still birth
IV. Ectopic pregnancies
V. Infertility
VI. Cancer
Choose the correct combinations

View answer and explanation

Correct option: D

I, II, III, IV, V and VI

Option D (I, II, III, IV, V and VI) is correct because all the listed conditions (Pelvic inflammation disease, Abortion, Still birth, Ectopic pregnancies, Infertility, Cancer) can be later complications of STDs.

Solution approach

Correct Answer + Core Reason: I, II, III, IV, V and VI. All the listed conditions are later complications of STDs.

Step-by-Step Solution:

Step 1: Understand the potential complications of STDs.

Step 2: STDs can lead to pelvic inflammatory disease (PID).

Step 3: STDs can increase the risk of abortion, stillbirth, and ectopic pregnancies.

Step 4: STDs can cause infertility in both men and women.

Step 5: Some STDs, like HPV, can increase the risk of certain cancers.

Why other options are wrong:
- Option A: All the listed conditions are potential complications.
- Option B: All the listed conditions are potential complications.
- Option C: All the listed conditions are potential complications.

Key Concepts:\nSexually Transmitted Diseases (STDs), Complications of STDs, Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID), Infertility, Ectopic pregnancy, Cancer.

Memory Aids:\nSTDs can have long-term reproductive health consequences.

Quick Tips:\nUnderstand the importance of early detection and treatment of STDs to prevent complications.

9 Medium

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Which of the following is not a type of asserted reproductive technology?

View answer and explanation

Correct option: B

MTP

Option B (MTP) is correct because MTP (Medical Termination of Pregnancy) is a method of abortion, not an Assisted Reproductive Technology (ART).

Solution approach

Correct Answer + Core Reason: MTP. MTP is a method of abortion, not an Assisted Reproductive Technology (ART).

Step-by-Step Solution:

Step 1: Define Assisted Reproductive Technologies (ART).

Step 2: ART includes procedures like IVF, GIFT, ZIFT, and ICSI, which help infertile couples conceive.

Step 3: MTP (Medical Termination of Pregnancy) is a procedure to terminate a pregnancy.

Step 4: Therefore, MTP is not a type of ART.

Why other options are wrong:
- Option A: GIFT (Gamete Intrafallopian Transfer) is an ART technique.
- Option C: ICSI (Intracytoplasmic Sperm Injection) is an ART technique.
- Option D: ZIFT (Zygote Intrafallopian Transfer) is an ART technique.

Key Concepts:
- Assisted Reproductive Technology (ART)
- Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP)
- GIFT, ICSI, ZIFT

Memory Aids:
- ART = Assisting reproduction; MTP = Terminating pregnancy

Quick Tips:
- Distinguish between technologies that help conceive and those that terminate pregnancy.

10 Medium

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IVF in which the early zygote with up to …A… blastomere is transferred to the Fallopian tube is called …B… .

View answer and explanation

Correct option: A

A-8; B-ZIFT

Option A (A-8; B-ZIFT) is correct because ZIFT involves transferring a zygote with up to 8 blastomeres into the Fallopian tube.

Solution approach

Correct Answer + Core Reason: A-8; B-ZIFT. ZIFT involves the transfer of a zygote or early embryo (up to 8 blastomeres) into the fallopian tube.

Step-by-Step Solution:
Step 1: Recall the procedure of ZIFT (Zygote Intrafallopian Transfer).
Step 2: Remember that ZIFT involves transferring a zygote or early embryo with up to 8 blastomeres into the fallopian tube.

Why other options are wrong:
- Option B: 16 blastomeres is incorrect; ZIFT involves up to 8 blastomeres.
- Option C: 32 blastomeres is incorrect; ZIFT involves up to 8 blastomeres.
- Option D: ZIF is not a standard acronym; it should be ZIFT, and the blastomere number is incorrect.

Key Concepts:
- ZIFT (Zygote Intrafallopian Transfer)
- Blastomere
- Assisted Reproductive Technology

Memory Aids:
- ZIFT: Zygote In Fallopian Tube

Quick Tips:
- Distinguish between ZIFT and other ART techniques like IVF-ET and GIFT.

11 Medium

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In vivo fertilisation involves the fertilisation that takes place

View answer and explanation

Correct option: C

Outside the uterus

Option C (Outside the uterus) is correct because in vivo fertilization, by definition, occurs within the female reproductive tract, specifically outside the uterus.

Solution approach

Correct Answer + Core Reason: Outside the uterus. In vivo fertilization occurs inside the body but outside the uterus.

Step-by-Step Solution:

Step 1: Define in vivo fertilization. In vivo fertilization refers to the fertilization of an egg by sperm inside the body of a living organism, specifically within the female reproductive tract but outside the uterus (typically in the fallopian tubes).

Step 2: Consider the options.

Step 3: Eliminate incorrect options. Option A is incorrect because in vitro fertilization occurs in a laboratory. Option B is incorrect because fertilization occurs outside the uterus in in vivo fertilization. Option D is incorrect because only option C is correct.

Step 4: Select the correct option.

Step 5: Final Answer: Outside the uterus.

Why other options are wrong:
- Option A: In the laboratory: This describes in vitro fertilization (IVF), not in vivo fertilization.
- Option B: In the uterus: Fertilization typically occurs in the fallopian tubes, not the uterus. Implantation occurs in the uterus.
- Option D: Either (a) or (b): Neither option A nor option B is correct for in vivo fertilization.

Key Concepts:
- In vivo fertilization
- In vitro fertilization
- Reproductive biology

Memory Aids:
- In vivo = \"in life\" (inside the body)
- In vitro = \"in glass\" (in the lab)

Quick Tips:
- Understand the difference between in vivo and in vitro fertilization.

12 Medium

12 of 64Question permalink

Remembering +4 | -1

Which of the following match is the correct? I. STDs – Sexually Transmitted Diseases II. VD – Venereal Disease III. RTI – Reproductive Tract Infection

View answer and explanation

Correct option: D

I, II and III

Option D (I, II and III) is correct because STDs stands for Sexually Transmitted Diseases, VD stands for Venereal Disease, and RTI stands for Reproductive Tract Infection.

Solution approach

Correct Answer + Core Reason: I, II and III. All the given matches are correct.

Step-by-Step Solution:

Step 1: Define the terms.

Step 2: STDs are Sexually Transmitted Diseases.

Step 3: VD is Venereal Disease, an older term for STDs.

Step 4: RTI is Reproductive Tract Infection, which can be caused by STDs or other infections.

Why other options are wrong:
- Option A: All three matches are correct.
- Option B: All three matches are correct.
- Option C: All three matches are correct.

Key Concepts:\nSexually Transmitted Diseases (STDs), Venereal Disease (VD), Reproductive Tract Infections (RTIs).

Memory Aids:\nSTD = VD = RTI (in some cases).

Quick Tips:\nUnderstand the different terms used to describe sexually transmitted infections.

13 Medium

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Purpose of tubectomy is to prevent

View answer and explanation

Correct option: A

Fertilization

Option A (Fertilization) is correct because tubectomy, a female sterilization method, prevents fertilization by blocking the fallopian tubes.

Solution approach

Correct Answer + Core Reason: Fertilization. Tubectomy prevents fertilization by blocking the fallopian tubes.

Step-by-Step Solution:

Step 1: Understand the purpose of tubectomy.

Step 2: Recall that tubectomy involves blocking the fallopian tubes.

Step 3: Recognize that blocking the fallopian tubes prevents the egg and sperm from meeting, thus preventing fertilization.

Why other options are wrong:
- Option B: Tubectomy does not directly prevent coitus (sexual intercourse).
- Option C: Tubectomy does not directly prevent egg formation (oogenesis).
- Option D: Tubectomy prevents fertilization, so embryonic development cannot occur in the first place.

Key Concepts:
- Tubectomy
- Female Sterilization
- Fertilization

Memory Aids:
- Tubectomy "blocks tubes" to prevent fertilization.

Quick Tips:
- Tubectomy is a permanent method of contraception.

14 Medium

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Find out the correct matching

View answer and explanation

Correct option: A

non-medicated IUDS - Lippe’s loop

Option A (non-medicated IUDS - Lippe’s loop) is correct because Lippe's loop is a non-medicated IUD.

Solution approach

Correct Answer + Core Reason: non-medicated IUDS - Lippe’s loop. Lippe's loop is a non-medicated IUD.

Step-by-Step Solution:

Step 1: Recall the different types of IUDs: non-medicated, copper-releasing, and hormone-releasing.

Step 2: Identify Lippe's loop as a non-medicated IUD.

Step 3: Recognize that Cu T, Cu 7 are copper releasing and Progestasert and LNG-20 are hormone releasing.

Why other options are wrong:
- Option B: LNG-20 is a hormone-releasing IUD, not a copper-releasing one. Multi load 375 is copper releasing.
- Option C: Multi load 375 is a copper-releasing IUD, not a hormone-releasing one.
- Option D: Only option A is correct, so all of the above is incorrect.

Key Concepts:
- Types of Intrauterine Devices (IUDs)

Memory Aids:
- Remember that Lippe's Loop is a non-medicated IUD.

Quick Tips:
- Knowing the different types of IUDs and their examples is important.

15 Medium

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Government of India legalized MTP in the year

View answer and explanation

Correct option: B

1971

Option B (1971) is correct because the Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) Act was legalized in India in 1971.

Solution approach

Correct Answer + Core Reason: 1971. The MTP Act was legalized in India in 1971.

Step-by-Step Solution:

Step 1: Recall the history of MTP legalization in India.

Step 2: The Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) Act was passed in 1971.

Step 3: This act legalized abortion under certain conditions to reduce illegal abortions and maternal mortality.

Why other options are wrong:
- Option A: 1951 is incorrect; the MTP Act was not yet in place.
- Option C: 1981 is incorrect; the MTP Act was already in place.
- Option D: 1992 is incorrect; the MTP Act was already in place.

Key Concepts:
- Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP)
- MTP Act
- Reproductive health

Memory Aids:
- MTP legalized in 1971 (think of it as early 70s)

Quick Tips:
- Remember the year of MTP legalization.

16 Medium

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NFCP stands for

View answer and explanation

Correct option: A

National Filaria Control Programme

Option A (National Filaria Control Programme) is the correct expansion of NFCP.

Solution approach

Correct Answer + Core Reason: National Filaria Control Programme. NFCP stands for National Filaria Control Programme.

Step-by-Step Solution:

Step 1: Recall the full form of NFCP.

Step 2: NFCP is an acronym related to public health programs.

Step 3: The full form is National Filaria Control Programme.

Why other options are wrong:
- Option B: National Smallpox Control Programme is incorrect as NFCP specifically refers to Filaria.
- Option C: National Fever Control Programme is incorrect as NFCP specifically refers to Filaria.
- Option D: None of the above is incorrect as option A is the correct answer.

Key Concepts:
- Public Health Programs
- Acronyms

Memory Aids:
- Associate NFCP with Filaria control.

Quick Tips:
- Remember common acronyms related to health programs.

17 Medium

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Diaphragms are contraceptive devices used by the females. Choose the correct option from the statements given below
(i) They are introduced into the uterus
(ii) They are placed to cover the cervical region.
(iii) They act as physical barriers for sperm entry.
(iv) They act as spermicidal agent.

View answer and explanation

Correct option: C

(ii) & (iii)

Option C ((ii) & (iii)) is correct because diaphragms are inserted to cover the cervix and act as a physical barrier to prevent sperm entry.

Solution approach

Correct Answer + Core Reason: (ii) & (iii). Diaphragms cover the cervix and act as physical barriers for sperm entry.

Step-by-Step Solution:

Step 1: Describe the function of diaphragms.

Step 2: Diaphragms are contraceptive devices used by females.

Step 3: They are inserted into the vagina to cover the cervix.

Step 4: They act as physical barriers, preventing sperm from entering the uterus.

Step 5: They are often used with spermicidal creams or gels for added effectiveness.

Why other options are wrong:
- Option A: Diaphragms are not introduced into the uterus.
- Option B: Diaphragms are not introduced into the uterus.
- Option D: While some diaphragms may be used with spermicidal agents, the primary function is as a physical barrier.

Key Concepts:
- Diaphragm
- Contraceptive device
- Physical barrier
- Cervix

Memory Aids:
- Diaphragm = Covers the cervix.

Quick Tips:
- Remember that diaphragms are physical barriers placed over the cervix.

18 Medium

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Population explosion is

View answer and explanation

Correct option: B

Rapid increase in population number

Option B (Rapid increase in population number) is correct because population explosion refers to a very fast increase in the number of individuals in a population.

Solution approach

Correct Answer + Core Reason: Rapid increase in population number. Population explosion means a rapid increase in population size.

Step-by-Step Solution:

Step 1: Define population explosion.

Step 2: Population explosion refers to a rapid and significant increase in the size of a population.

Step 3: Match the definition with the given options.

Why other options are wrong:
- Option A: Increased frequency of diseases in population is not the definition of population explosion.
- Option C: Rapid decrease in population number is the opposite of population explosion.
- Option D: None of the above is incorrect because option B is the correct answer.

Key Concepts:
- Population dynamics
- Population growth

Memory Aids:
- Explosion = rapid increase

Quick Tips:
- Understand the basic definitions of population-related terms.

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ZIFT is

View answer and explanation

Correct option: A

Transfer of zygote into the fallopian tube

Option A (Transfer of zygote into the fallopian tube) is correct because ZIFT involves the transfer of a zygote into the fallopian tube.

Solution approach

Correct Answer + Core Reason: Transfer of zygote into the fallopian tube. ZIFT stands for Zygote Intrafallopian Transfer, which involves transferring a zygote into the fallopian tube.

Step-by-Step Solution:
Step 1: Recall the meaning of the acronym ZIFT.
Step 2: Identify that ZIFT involves transferring a zygote into the fallopian tube.

Why other options are wrong:
- Option B: Transfer of embryo into the uterus is IUT (Intrauterine Transfer), not ZIFT.
- Option C: Transfer of mixture of sperms and ova into the fallopian tube is GIFT (Gamete Intrafallopian Transfer), not ZIFT.
- Option D: Transfer of mixture of sperms and ova into the uterus is not a standard ART technique.

Key Concepts:
- ZIFT (Zygote Intrafallopian Transfer)
- Assisted Reproductive Technology

Memory Aids:
- ZIFT: Zygote In Fallopian Tube

Quick Tips:
- Distinguish between ZIFT, GIFT, and IUT.

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In which of the following ART, embryo is formed by in-vitro fertilisation?

View answer and explanation

Correct option: A

ICSI

Option A (ICSI) is correct because ICSI (Intracytoplasmic Sperm Injection) involves in vitro fertilization where sperm is directly injected into the egg.

Solution approach

Correct Answer + Core Reason: ICSI. ICSI (Intracytoplasmic Sperm Injection) involves in-vitro fertilization.

Step-by-Step Solution:
Step 1: Recall the procedure of ICSI (Intracytoplasmic Sperm Injection).
Step 2: Remember that ICSI involves injecting a sperm directly into an egg outside the body, which is in vitro fertilization.

Why other options are wrong:
- Option B: IUI (Intrauterine Insemination) does not involve in vitro fertilization; sperm is placed in the uterus.
- Option C: AI (Artificial Insemination) does not involve in vitro fertilization; sperm is placed in the vagina or uterus.
- Option D: GIFT (Gamete Intrafallopian Transfer) involves in vivo fertilization; gametes are placed in the fallopian tube.

Key Concepts:
- ICSI (Intracytoplasmic Sperm Injection)
- In vitro fertilization
- Assisted Reproductive Technology

Memory Aids:
- ICSI: Injection of sperm into egg (outside the body)

Quick Tips:
- Distinguish between ART techniques based on whether fertilization is in vitro or in vivo.

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Amniocentesis is used for determining

View answer and explanation

Correct option: C

Hereditary disease of the embryo

Option C (Hereditary disease of the embryo) is correct because amniocentesis is a prenatal diagnostic technique used to detect genetic abnormalities in the developing fetus.

Solution approach

Correct Answer + Core Reason: Hereditary disease of the embryo. Amniocentesis involves extracting amniotic fluid to analyze fetal cells for genetic disorders.

Step-by-Step Solution:

Step 1: Amniocentesis is a prenatal diagnostic procedure.

Step 2: It involves extracting a small sample of amniotic fluid surrounding the fetus.

Step 3: The fluid contains fetal cells that can be analyzed for chromosomal abnormalities and genetic disorders.

Step 4: This allows for the detection of hereditary diseases in the embryo.

Why other options are wrong:
- Option A: Heart disease can sometimes be detected prenatally, but amniocentesis is not the primary method for this.
- Option B: Brain disease can sometimes be inferred from genetic testing, but amniocentesis is not a direct method for detecting brain diseases.
- Option D: While amniocentesis can contribute to the diagnosis of some conditions, it is most directly associated with hereditary diseases.

Key Concepts:
- Prenatal diagnosis
- Genetic testing
- Amniocentesis
- Hereditary diseases

Memory Aids:
- Amnio- = Amniotic fluid, -centesis = puncture/extraction

Quick Tips:
- Remember that amniocentesis is primarily used for genetic testing.

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Among the given below STIs, how many are caused by bacteria? Genital herpes, Genital warts, Chlamydiasis, Trichomoniasis

View answer and explanation

Correct option: A

1

Option A (1) is correct because only Chlamydiasis among the listed STIs is caused by bacteria.

Solution approach

Correct Answer + Core Reason: 1. Only Chlamydiasis is caused by bacteria among the given options.

Step-by-Step Solution:

Step 1: Identify the causative agents of the given STIs.

Step 2: Genital herpes is caused by the herpes simplex virus (HSV).

Step 3: Genital warts are caused by the human papillomavirus (HPV).

Step 4: Chlamydiasis is caused by the bacterium Chlamydia trachomatis.

Step 5: Trichomoniasis is caused by the parasite Trichomonas vaginalis.

Why other options are wrong:
- Option B: Only one STI is caused by bacteria.
- Option C: Only one STI is caused by bacteria.
- Option D: Only one STI is caused by bacteria.

Key Concepts:\nSexually Transmitted Infections (STIs), Bacterial STIs, Viral STIs, Parasitic STIs.

Memory Aids:\nChlamydia = Bacteria.

Quick Tips:\nKnow the causative agents of common STIs.

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Which of the following is not a copper-ion releasing IUD ?

View answer and explanation

Correct option: C

Lippes loop

Option C (Lippes loop) is correct because it is an inert IUD (plastic) and does not release copper ions.

Solution approach

Correct Answer + Core Reason: Lippes loop. It is an inert IUD and does not release copper ions.

Step-by-Step Solution:

Step 1: Understand the question: Identify the IUD that does NOT release copper ions.

Step 2: Analyze the options:
- A: CuT - Copper-releasing IUD.
- B: Cu7 - Copper-releasing IUD.
- C: Lippes loop - Inert IUD (plastic).
- D: Multiload 375 - Copper-releasing IUD.

Step 3: Conclusion: Option C is the correct answer.

Why other options are wrong:
- Option A: CuT releases copper ions.
- Option B: Cu7 releases copper ions.
- Option D: Multiload 375 releases copper ions.

Key Concepts:
- Copper-releasing IUDs
- Inert IUDs
- Contraceptive methods

Memory Aids:
- Remember that Lippes loop is made of plastic and doesn't release copper.

Quick Tips:
- Differentiate between copper-releasing and inert IUDs.

24 Medium

24 of 64Question permalink

Remembering +4 | -1

Periodic abstinence is avoiding sex during

View answer and explanation

Correct option: B

Ovulatory phase

Option B (Ovulatory phase) is correct because periodic abstinence involves avoiding sexual intercourse during the ovulatory phase to prevent pregnancy.

Solution approach

Correct Answer + Core Reason: Ovulatory phase. Periodic abstinence relies on avoiding intercourse during the fertile window around ovulation.

Step-by-Step Solution:
Step 1: Understand the concept of periodic abstinence as a natural method of contraception.
Step 2: Identify the ovulatory phase as the period when the egg is released and fertilization is most likely.
Step 3: Conclude that avoiding sex during this phase reduces the chance of pregnancy.

Why other options are wrong:
- Option A: Luteal phase is after ovulation, so avoiding sex then is less effective.
- Option C: Menstrual phase is when menstruation occurs, and pregnancy is not possible at this time.
- Option D: This option is incorrect as one of the given options is correct.

Key Concepts:
- Periodic abstinence
- Ovulatory phase
- Natural contraception

Memory Aids:
- Remember that ovulation is when pregnancy is most likely.

Quick Tips:
- Understand the menstrual cycle and fertile window for effective use of this method.

25 Medium

25 of 64Question permalink

Understanding +4 | -1

IVF in which zygote with …A… then 8 blastomere is transferred into female body it is called …B… .

View answer and explanation

Correct option: A

A-more; B-IUT

Option A (A-more; B-IUT) is correct. When a zygote with more than 8 blastomeres is transferred into the female body, it is called Intrauterine transfer (IUT).

Solution approach

Correct Answer + Core Reason: A-more; B-IUT. Zygotes with more than 8 blastomeres are transferred into the uterus (IUT).

Step-by-Step Solution:

Step 1: Define the terms. IVF stands for In Vitro Fertilization. IUT stands for Intra Uterine Transfer. ZIFT stands for Zygote Intrafallopian Transfer. ICSI stands for Intracytoplasmic sperm injection.

Step 2: Understand the process. In IVF, if the zygote has up to 8 blastomeres, it is transferred into the fallopian tube (ZIFT). If it has more than 8 blastomeres, it is transferred into the uterus (IUT).

Step 3: Apply the information to the question.

Step 4: Final Answer: A-more; B-IUT.

Why other options are wrong:
- Option B: A-less; B-IUT: If the zygote has less than or equal to 8 blastomeres, ZIFT is performed, not IUT.
- Option C: A-less; B-ZIFT: If the zygote has less than or equal to 8 blastomeres, ZIFT is performed. This option is partially correct but doesn't fit the question's structure.
- Option D: A-less; B-ICSI: ICSI is a fertilization technique, not a transfer method.

Key Concepts:
- IVF (In Vitro Fertilization)
- ZIFT (Zygote Intrafallopian Transfer)
- IUT (Intra Uterine Transfer)
- ICSI (Intracytoplasmic sperm injection)

Memory Aids:
- IUT = Uterus Transfer
- ZIFT = Fallopian Tube Transfer

Quick Tips:
- Remember the number of blastomeres (8) as the cutoff for ZIFT vs. IUT.

26 Medium

26 of 64Question permalink

Understanding +4 | -1

Choose the correct causes for the population growth
I. Decline in death rate
II. Rapid increase in MMR and IMR
III. Rapid decline in MMR and IMR
IV. Increase in the number of people, in the reproductive age group
V. Rapid increase in the death rate

View answer and explanation

Correct option: C

I, III and IV

Option C (I, III and IV) is correct because a decline in death rate, a rapid decline in MMR and IMR, and an increase in the number of people in the reproductive age group all contribute to population growth.

Solution approach

Correct Answer + Core Reason: I, III and IV. Decline in death rate, rapid decline in MMR and IMR, and increase in reproductive age group contribute to population growth.

Step-by-Step Solution:

Step 1: Identify the factors that contribute to population growth.

Step 2: Population growth is caused by a decline in death rate, a rapid decline in MMR (Maternal Mortality Rate) and IMR (Infant Mortality Rate), and an increase in the number of people in the reproductive age group.

Step 3: Evaluate each statement: I. Decline in death rate is correct. II. Rapid increase in MMR and IMR is incorrect. III. Rapid decline in MMR and IMR is correct. IV. Increase in the number of people, in the reproductive age group is correct. V. Rapid increase in the death rate is incorrect.

Why other options are wrong:
- Option A: I, II, III, IV and V is incorrect because statements II and V are incorrect.
- Option B: I, II and IV is incorrect because statement II is incorrect.
- Option D: III, IV and V is incorrect because statement V is incorrect.

Key Concepts:
- Population growth
- Factors affecting population growth

Memory Aids:
- Population growth = low death rate, low MMR/IMR, more reproductive people

Quick Tips:
- Understand the relationship between birth rate, death rate, and population growth.

27 Medium

27 of 64Question permalink

Remembering +4 | -1

Human population growth is

View answer and explanation

Correct option: C

Exponential

Option C (Exponential) is correct because the human population has been growing exponentially, especially in recent centuries.

Solution approach

Correct Answer + Core Reason: Exponential. Human population growth has shown an exponential trend over the past few centuries.

Step-by-Step Solution:
Step 1: Recall the patterns of population growth.
Step 2: Recognize that human population growth has been rapid and accelerating, fitting an exponential model.

Why other options are wrong:
- Option A: Lag phase is the initial slow growth phase, not the current state of human population.
- Option B: Stationary phase indicates zero population growth, which is not the case for the human population.
- Option D: This option is incorrect as one of the given options is correct.

Key Concepts:
- Population growth
- Exponential growth

Memory Aids:
- Exponential growth = rapid increase

Quick Tips:
- Understand the different phases of population growth curves.

28 Medium

28 of 64Question permalink

Remembering +4 | -1

Vitamin-E is also called

View answer and explanation

Correct option: A

Antisterility vitamin

Option A (Antisterility vitamin) is correct because Vitamin E is known for its role in reproductive health and is thus called the antisterility vitamin.

Solution approach

Correct Answer + Core Reason: Antisterility vitamin. Vitamin E is essential for reproductive health and is therefore known as the antisterility vitamin.

Step-by-Step Solution:

Step 1: Identify the question type. This is a knowledge-based question about vitamins.

Step 2: Recall the functions and names of different vitamins.

Step 3: Vitamin E is known for its antioxidant properties and its role in protecting cell membranes from damage. It is also crucial for reproductive health.

Step 4: Therefore, Vitamin E is also called Antisterility vitamin.

Why other options are wrong:
- Option B: Antihelmenthic hormone refers to substances used to treat parasitic worm infections, not related to Vitamin E.
- Option C: Inorganic antisterility vitamin is incorrect because vitamins are organic compounds.
- Option D: None of the above is incorrect because option A is the correct answer.

Key Concepts:
- Vitamins and their functions
- Role of Vitamin E in reproductive health

Memory Aids:
- Vitamin E - E for Essential for Embryo (helps remember its role in reproduction)

Quick Tips:
- Remember the common names and functions of important vitamins.

29 Medium

29 of 64Question permalink

Understanding +4 | -1

What is the purpose of surgical method of contraception?

View answer and explanation

Correct option: A

Prevent gamete motility

Option A (Prevent gamete motility) is correct because surgical methods like vasectomy and tubectomy prevent the transport of gametes.

Solution approach

Correct Answer + Core Reason: Prevent gamete motility. Surgical methods prevent the transport of gametes.

Step-by-Step Solution:

Step 1: Identify the surgical methods of contraception.

Step 2: Surgical methods include vasectomy (in males) and tubectomy (in females). Vasectomy prevents sperm transport, and tubectomy prevents egg transport.

Step 3: Determine the purpose of surgical methods.

Why other options are wrong:
- Option B: Prevent gamete formation is incorrect. Surgical methods do not prevent gamete formation but prevent their transport.
- Option C: Gametogenesis promotion is incorrect. Surgical methods are used for contraception, not for promoting gametogenesis.
- Option D: Facilitate implantation is incorrect. Surgical methods are used to prevent pregnancy, not to facilitate implantation.

Key Concepts:
- Surgical methods of contraception
- Vasectomy
- Tubectomy

Memory Aids:
- Surgical = block transport

Quick Tips:
- Differentiate between methods that prevent gamete formation and those that prevent gamete transport.

30 Medium

30 of 64Question permalink

Understanding +4 | -1

Complete the analogy regarding assisted reproductive technologies.
IUT : Embryo with more than 8 blastomeres is transferred into uterus : : ZIFT : ______

View answer and explanation

Correct option: D

Zygote or early embryo (upto 8 blastomeres) is transferred into fallopian tube

Option D (Zygote or early embryo (upto 8 blastomeres) is transferred into fallopian tube) is correct because ZIFT involves transferring a zygote or early embryo (up to 8 blastomeres) into the fallopian tube.

Solution approach

Correct Answer + Core Reason: Zygote or early embryo (upto 8 blastomeres) is transferred into fallopian tube. This accurately describes the ZIFT procedure.

Step-by-Step Solution:
Step 1: Understand the analogy provided, relating IUT to ZIFT.
Step 2: Recall the procedure of ZIFT (Zygote Intrafallopian Transfer).
Step 3: Remember that ZIFT involves transferring a zygote or early embryo with up to 8 blastomeres into the fallopian tube.

Why other options are wrong:
- Option A: Only zygote is transferred is not entirely correct, as early embryos (up to 8 blastomeres) can also be transferred.
- Option B: Only embryo with 4 blastomeres is transferred is incorrect; it's up to 8 blastomeres.
- Option C: Zygote is transferred into uterus is incorrect; it's transferred into the fallopian tube.

Key Concepts:
- ZIFT (Zygote Intrafallopian Transfer)
- IUT (Intrauterine Transfer)
- Assisted Reproductive Technology

Memory Aids:
- ZIFT: Zygote In Fallopian Tube

Quick Tips:
- Understand the specific details of each ART technique.

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