Skip to main content
Back to INVERSE TRIGONOMETRY

JEE MATHEMATICS MCQ: INVERSE TRIGONOMETRY

1 Easy
1 of 1
Analyzing +4 | -1
The value of ′a′'a' for which ax2+sin⁡−1(x2−2x+2)+cos⁡−1(x2−2x+2)=0a{x^2} + {\sin ^{ - 1}}\left( {{x^2} - 2x + 2} \right) + {\cos ^{ - 1}}\left( {{x^2} - 2x + 2} \right) = 0 has a real solution, is
View answer and explanation
Correct option: C
−π2- \frac{\pi }{2}
Option C (−π2- \frac{\pi }{2}) is correct because substituting x=1 into the equation and solving for 'a' yields a = -π/2.

More Questions from INVERSE TRIGONOMETRY

Practice All Chapter MCQs →
Type at least 2 characters or jump directly:
🔓

Save your learning progress

Sign in with a free account to save your practice answers and quiz results, then return to them when you revise.