JEE MATHEMATICS MCQ: DIFFERENTIATION

1 Easy

1 of 1

Application +4 | -1

f(x)=x^n

, then the value of

f(1)+\frac{f^{\prime}(1)}{1 !}+\frac{f^{\prime \prime}(1)}{2 !}+\frac{f^{\prime \prime \prime}(1)}{3 !}+\ldots .+\frac{f^{(n)}(1)}{n !}

, is

View answer and explanation

Correct option: B

2^n

Option B is correct because it represents the sum of the binomial coefficients, which equals 2^n.

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