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JEE MATHEMATICS MCQ: DIFFERENTIATION

1 Easy

1 of 1

Application +4 | -1

If

f(x)=(1+x)^n

, then the value of

f(0)+f^{\prime}(0)+\frac{f^{\prime \prime}(0)}{2 !}+\ldots+\frac{f^n(0)}{n !}

is

View answer and explanation

Correct option: B

2^n

Option B (

2^n

) is correct because the given expression is the binomial expansion of

(1+1)^n

evaluated at

x=0

.

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v\frac{{\partial z}}{{\partial x}} + \frac{{\partial z}}{{\partial y}}