Skip to main content
Back to INVERSE TRIGONOMETRY

JEE MATHEMATICS MCQ: INVERSE TRIGONOMETRY

1 Easy
1 of 1
Application +4 | -1
The value of sinβ‘βˆ’1(cos⁑(cosβ‘βˆ’1(cos⁑x)+sinβ‘βˆ’1(sin⁑x)))\sin ^{-1}\left(\cos \left(\cos ^{-1}(\cos x)+\sin ^{-1}(\sin x)\right)\right) where x∈(Ο€2,Ο€)x \in\left(\frac{\pi}{2}, \pi\right) is equal to
View answer and explanation
Correct option: A
βˆ’Ο€/2-\pi / 2
Option A (βˆ’Ο€/2-\pi / 2) is correct because the expression simplifies to sinβ‘βˆ’1(cos⁑(Ο€))=sinβ‘βˆ’1(βˆ’1)=βˆ’Ο€/2\sin^{-1}(\cos(\pi)) = \sin^{-1}(-1) = -\pi/2.

More Questions from INVERSE TRIGONOMETRY

Practice All Chapter MCQs β†’
Type at least 2 characters or jump directly:
πŸ”“

Save your learning progress

Sign in with a free account to save your practice answers and quiz results, then return to them when you revise.