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JEE MATHEMATICS MCQ: DIFFERENTIATION

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If f(x)=∑n=0∞xnn!(log⁡ea)n,a>0,a≠0f\left( x \right) = \sum\nolimits_{n = 0}^\infty {\frac{{{x^n}}}{{n!}}{{\left( {{{\log }_e}a} \right)}^n}} ,a > 0,a \ne 0, then at x=0,f(x)x = 0,f\left( x \right) is
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Correct option: B
Everywhere differentiable
The correct answer is B (Everywhere differentiable) because the function simplifies to axa^x, which is differentiable everywhere.

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