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JEE MATHEMATICS MCQ: INVERSE TRIGONOMETRY

1 Hard
1 of 1
Application +4 | -1
If sin⁡−1(−x22+x34−…)+cos⁡−1(x2−x42+x64−…)\sin ^{-1}\left(-\frac{x^2}{2}+\frac{x^3}{4}-\ldots\right)+\cos ^{-1}\left(x^2-\frac{x^4}{2}+\frac{x^6}{4}-\ldots\right) =π2=\frac{\pi}{2} for 0<∣x∣<20<|x|<\sqrt{2}, then xx equals
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Correct option: B
1
Option B (1) is correct because simplifying the given equation using the properties of inverse trigonometric functions and geometric series leads to x = 1.

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