JEE MATHEMATICS MCQ: DIFFERENTIATION

1 Hard

1 of 1

Application +4 | -1

f(x)=(1-x) n, n \in N

then

f(0)+\frac{f^{\prime}(0)}{1 !}+\frac{f^{\prime \prime}(0)}{2 !}+\ldots .+\frac{f^n(0)}{n !}=

View answer and explanation

Correct option: B

Option B (0) is correct because the given expression is the binomial expansion of (1-1)^n which equals 0.

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