JEE MATHEMATICS MCQ: DIFFERENTIATION

1 Easy

1 of 1

Application +4 | -1

f(x)=x^n

, then the value of

f(1)-\frac{f^{\prime}(1)}{1 !}+\frac{f^{\prime \prime}(1)}{2 !}-\frac{f^{\prime \prime \prime}(1)}{3 !}+\cdots+\frac{(-1)^n f^n(1)}{n !}

View answer and explanation

Correct option: B

Option B (0) is correct because the given expression is the binomial expansion of (1-1)^n.

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