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JEE MATHEMATICS MCQ: DIFFERENTIATION

1 Hard
1 of 1
Application +4 | -1
If f(x)=xnf(x)=x^n, then the value of f(1)−f′(1)1!+f′′(1)2!−f′′′(1)3!+fiv(1)4!…+(−1)nfn(1)n!f(1)-\frac{f^{\prime}(1)}{1 !}+\frac{f^{\prime \prime}(1)}{2 !}-\frac{f^{\prime \prime \prime}(1)}{3 !}+\frac{f^{i v}(1)}{4 !} \ldots+\frac{(-1)^n f^n(1)}{n !}, is
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Correct option: D
0
Option D is correct because it correctly applies the binomial theorem to the given expression.

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