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JEE MATHEMATICS MCQ: DIFFERENTIATION

1 Easy
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Analyzing +4 | -1
If f(x)=xn,f\left( x \right) = {x^n}, then the value of f(1)−f′(1)1!+f′′(1)2!−f′′′(1)3!+…+(−1)nfn(1)n!f\left( 1 \right) - \frac{{f'\left( 1 \right)}}{{1!}} + \frac{{f''\left( 1 \right)}}{{2!}} - \frac{{f'''\left( 1 \right)}}{{3!}} + \ldots + \frac{{{{\left( { - 1} \right)}^n}{f^n}\left( 1 \right)}}{{n!}} is
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Correct option: C
0
Option C (0) is correct because the expression is equivalent to the binomial expansion of (1-1)^n which equals 0.

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