JEE MATHEMATICS MCQ: DIFFERENTIATION

1 Easy

1 of 1

Application +4 | -1

Let

f

be a bijection satisfying

f^{\prime}(x)=f(x)

. Then,

\left(f^{-1}\right)^{\prime \prime}(x)

is equal to

View answer and explanation

Correct option: B

-\frac{1}{x^2}

Option B is correct because it correctly applies the derivative rules for inverse functions and uses the given condition f'(x) = f(x).

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x

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\frac{{dy}}{{dx}}

\frac{d}{d x} \sin ^{-1}\left(3 x-4 x^{3}\right)

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v\frac{{\partial z}}{{\partial x}} + \frac{{\partial z}}{{\partial y}}