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JEE MATHEMATICS MCQ: DIFFERENTIATION

1 Easy
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Analyzing +4 | -1
If f(x)=xnf(x)=x^{n}, then the value of
f(1)−f′(1)1!+f′′(1)2!−f′′′(1)3!+………..(−1)nfn(1)n!f(1)-\frac{f^{\prime}(1)}{1 !}+\frac{f^{\prime \prime}(1)}{2 !}-\frac{f^{\prime \prime \prime}(1)}{3 !}+\ldots \ldots \ldots . . \frac{(-1)^{n} f^{n}(1)}{n !} is
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Correct option: D
0 .
Option D (0) is correct because the given expression is the binomial expansion of (1-1)^n which equals 0.

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