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JEE MATHEMATICS MCQ: INVERSE TRIGONOMETRY

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Application +4 | -1
If cos⁡−1[sin⁡(sin⁡−1(sin⁡x))]=0\cos ^{-1}\left[\sin \left(\sin ^{-1}(\sin x)\right)\right]=0, then the value of tan⁡x2\tan \frac{x}{2} is (x∈[0,2π])(x \in[0,2 \pi])
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Correct option: A
1
Option A (1) is correct because the equation simplifies to sin x = 1, which implies x = π/2, and thus tan(x/2) = tan(π/4) = 1.

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