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JEE MATHEMATICS MCQ: DIFFERENTIATION

1 Easy
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Application +4 | -1
Let ff be a one-one function satisfying f′(x)=f(x)f^{\prime}(x)=f(x) then (f−1)′′(x)\left(f^{-1}\right)^{\prime \prime}(x) is equal to
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Correct option: B
−1/x2-1 / x^2
Option B (−1/x2-1 / x^2) is correct because it is the second derivative of the inverse function, calculated using the chain rule and the given condition.

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