If $f(x)=\cot ^{-1}\left(\frac{x^x-x^{-x}}{2}\right)$, then $f^{\prime}(1)$ equals

JEE MATHEMATICS MCQ: DIFFERENTIATION

1 Easy

1 of 1

Application +4 | -1

f(x)=\cot ^{-1}\left(\frac{x^x-x^{-x}}{2}\right)

, then

f^{\prime}(1)

equals

View answer and explanation

Correct option: A

-1

Option A (-1) is correct because it is the value of the derivative of the given function, evaluated at x=1.

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