Skip to main content
Back to INVERSE TRIGONOMETRY

JEE MATHEMATICS MCQ: INVERSE TRIGONOMETRY

1 Easy
1 of 1
Application +4 | -1
sin⁡−1(cos⁡(sin⁡−1x))+cos⁡−1(sin⁡(cos⁡−1x))\sin ^{-1}\left(\cos \left(\sin ^{-1} x\right)\right)+\cos ^{-1}\left(\sin \left(\cos ^{-1} x\right)\right) is equal to
View answer and explanation
Correct option: B
π2\frac{\pi}{2}
Option B (π2\frac{{\pi}}{{2}}) is correct because using trigonometric identities simplifies the expression to π2\frac{{\pi}}{{2}}.

More Questions from INVERSE TRIGONOMETRY

Practice All Chapter MCQs →
Type at least 2 characters or jump directly:
🔓

Save your learning progress

Sign in with a free account to save your practice answers and quiz results, then return to them when you revise.