JEE MATHEMATICS MCQ: DIFFERENTIATION

1 Easy

1 of 1

Analyzing +4 | -1

f\left( x \right) = {\left( {1 - x} \right)^n}

, then the value of

f\left( 0 \right) + f'\left( 0 \right) + \frac{{f''\left( 0 \right)}}{{2!}} + \ldots \frac{{{f^n}\left( 0 \right)}}{{n!}}

, is

View answer and explanation

Correct option: B

Option B (0) is correct because the given expression is the binomial expansion of

(1-1)^n

, which equals 0.

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