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JEE MATHEMATICS MCQ: INVERSE TRIGONOMETRY

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Application +4 | -1
If tan⁡−1x+tan⁡−1y+tan⁡−1z=π\tan ^{-1} x+\tan ^{-1} y+\tan ^{-1} z=\pi then 1xy+1yz+1zx\frac{1}{x y}+\frac{1}{y z}+\frac{1}{z x} is
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Correct option: B
1
Option B (1) is correct because if tan⁡−1x+tan⁡−1y+tan⁡−1z=π\tan^{-1} x + \tan^{-1} y + \tan^{-1} z = \pi, then x+y+z=xyzx + y + z = xyz, which implies 1xy+1yz+1zx=1\frac{1}{xy} + \frac{1}{yz} + \frac{1}{zx} = 1.

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