JEE MATHEMATICS MCQ: FUNCTIONS

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Application +4 | -1

g:(-\infty, \infty) \rightarrow\left(\frac{-\pi}{2}, \frac{\pi}{2}\right), g(x)=2 \tan ^{-1}\left(e^\pi\right)-\frac{\pi}{2}

and

f

is inverse of

g

, then

f(0)=\ldots \ldots

View answer and explanation

Correct option: A

Option A (1) is correct because after finding the inverse function and differentiating it, substituting x=0 gives the value 1.

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