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JEE MATHEMATICS MCQ: INDEFINITE INTEGRATION

1 Hard
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Application +4 | -1
Let f  (x)f\,\,\left( x \right) be a function satisfying f′  (x)=f(x)f'\,\,\left( x \right) = f\left( x \right) with f(0)=1f\left( 0 \right) = 1 and g  (x)g\,\,\left( x \right) be a function that satisfies f  (x)+g(x)=x2f\,\,\left( x \right) + g\left( x \right) = {x^2}. Then, the value of the integral ∫01 f(x)    g  (x)   dx\int \limits_0^1 \,f\left( x \right)\;\,\,g\,\,\left( x \right)\;\,dx, is
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Correct option: D
e  −  e22  −  32e\,\, - \,\,\frac{{{e^2}}}{2}\,\, - \,\,\frac{3}{2}
Option D (e  −  e22  −  32e\,\, - \,\,\frac{{{{{e^2}}}}}{2}\,\, - \,\,\frac{3}{2}) is correct because it is the result of evaluating the definite integral after finding the functions f(x) and g(x).

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