JEE MATHEMATICS MCQ: INDEFINITE INTEGRATION

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Understanding +4 | -1

f_n(x)=\log \log \ldots \log x

(log is repeated

n

times) then

\int\left[x f_1(x) f_2(x) \ldots f_n(x)\right]^{-1} \mathrm{~d} x

is equal to

View answer and explanation

Correct option: A

f_{n+1}(x)+C

Option A (

f_{n+1}(x)+C

) is correct because it is the result of applying the substitution method and integrating.

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