Skip to main content
Back to INDEFINITE INTEGRATION

JEE MATHEMATICS MCQ: INDEFINITE INTEGRATION

1 Easy
1 of 1
Application +4 | -1
The integral of ∫(1ln⁡x−1(ln⁡x)2)dx=\int\left(\frac{1}{\ln x}-\frac{1}{(\ln x)^2}\right) d x=
View answer and explanation
Correct option: C
xln⁡x+c\frac{x}{\ln x}+c
Option C (xln⁡x+c\frac{x}{\ln x}+c) is correct because it is the result of integration by parts after a suitable substitution.

More Questions from INDEFINITE INTEGRATION

Practice All Chapter MCQs →
Type at least 2 characters or jump directly:
🔓

Save your learning progress

Sign in with a free account to save your practice answers and quiz results, then return to them when you revise.