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JEE MATHEMATICS MCQ: COMPLEX NUMBERS

1 Easy
1 of 1
Application +4 | -1
If ∣z1∣=∣z2∣…=∣zn∣=1\left|\mathrm{z}_1\right|=\left|\mathrm{z}_2\right| \ldots=\left|\mathrm{z}_n\right|=1, then ∣z1+z2+……+znz1−1+z2−1+……+zn−1∣\left|\frac{z_1+\mathrm{z}_2+\ldots \ldots+\mathrm{z}_n}{\mathrm{z}_1^{-1}+\mathrm{z}_2^{-1}+\ldots \ldots+\mathrm{z}_n^{-1}}\right| equals-
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Correct option: C
1
Option C (1) is correct because the expression simplifies to 1 using the property that if ∣z∣=1|z|=1, then zˉ=1z\bar{z} = \frac{1}{z}.

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