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JEE MATHEMATICS MCQ: INDEFINITE INTEGRATION

1 Hard
1 of 1
Application +4 | -1
The value of∫12{  f ( g(x))}−1f′  ( g(x))g′  (x)  dx\int \limits_1^2 {\left\{ {\,\,f\,\left( {\,g\left( x \right)} \right)} \right\}^{ - 1}}f'\,\,\left( {\,g\left( x \right)} \right)g'\,\,\left( x \right)\,\,dx, where g  (1)=g  (2)g\,\,\left( 1 \right) = g\,\,\left( 2 \right), is equal to
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Correct option: C
3
Option D (None of these) is correct because the integral evaluates to 0 due to the given condition g(1) = g(2).

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