JEE MATHEMATICS MCQ: INDEFINITE INTEGRATION

1 Easy

1 of 1

Application +4 | -1

\begin{aligned} & \int\left(x^{2010}+x^{804}+x^{402}\right)\left(2 x^{1608}+5 x^{402}+10\right)^{\frac{1}{402}} d x \\ & =\frac{1}{10 a}\left(2 x^{2010}+5 x^{804}+10 x^{402}\right)^{\frac{a}{402}}, \text { then } a-400 \text { is } \end{aligned}

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Correct option: A

Option A (3) is correct because it is the value of a - 400, derived from the given integral by substitution and simplification.

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