Skip to main content
Back to MEAN VALUES THEOREM

JEE MATHEMATICS MCQ: MEAN VALUES THEOREM

1 Medium
1 of 1
Analyzing +4 | -1
If a0n+1+a1n+a2n−1+…+an−12+an=0.\frac{{{a_0}}}{{n + 1}} + \frac{{{a_1}}}{n} + \frac{{{a_2}}}{{n - 1}} + \ldots + \frac{{{a_{n - 1}}}}{2} + {a_n} = 0.. Then the function f(x)=a0xn+a1xn−1+a2xn−2+…+anf\left( x \right) = {a_0}{x^n} + {a_1}{x^{n - 1}} + {a_2}{x^{n - 2}} + \ldots + {a_n} has in (0,1)
View answer and explanation
Correct option: A
At least one zero
Option A is correct because by constructing a function and applying Rolle's theorem, we can show that the given polynomial has at least one zero in (0,1).

More Questions from MEAN VALUES THEOREM

Practice All Chapter MCQs →
Type at least 2 characters or jump directly:
🔓

Save your learning progress

Sign in with a free account to save your practice answers and quiz results, then return to them when you revise.