Skip to main content
Back to MEAN VALUES THEOREM

JEE MATHEMATICS MCQ: MEAN VALUES THEOREM

1 Medium
1 of 1
Analyzing +4 | -1
Assertion (A): If Rolle's theorem be applied in f(x)f(x), then L.M.V. theorem is also applicable for f(x)f(x).
Reason (R): Both Rolle's theorem & L.M.V. theorem can not be applied in f(x)=∣sin⁡∣x∣∣f(x)=|\sin | x || in [−π3,π3]\left[-\frac{\pi}{3}, \frac{\pi}{3}\right]
The codes are given below, select the correct codes.
View answer and explanation
Correct option: B
Both (A) & (R) are individually true but (R) is not the correct (proper) explanation of (A).
Option B (Both (A) & (R) are individually true but (R) is not the correct (proper) explanation of (A).) is correct because while both the assertion and the reason are true statements, the reason does not directly explain the assertion.

More Questions from MEAN VALUES THEOREM

Practice All Chapter MCQs →
If f(x)f(x) and g(x)g(x) are differentiable functions in [0,1][0,1] such that f(0)=2,f(1)=6,g(0)=0,g(1)=f(0)=2, f(1)=6, g(0)=0, g(1)= 2 , then there exists 0<c<10 < \mathrm{c} < 1 such that
Let f(x)=x−1+x+24−10x−1,  1≤x≤26f\left( x \right) = \sqrt {x - 1} + \sqrt {x + 24 - 10\sqrt {x - 1} } ,\;1 \le x \le 26 be real valued function, then f′(x)f'\left( x \right) for 1<x<261 < x < 26 The Rolle’s theorem is applicable in the interval −1≤x≤1- 1 \le x \le 1 for the function If f(x)f(x) satisfies the conditions for Rolle's theorem on [3,5][3,5], then ∫35f(x) dx\int\limits_3^5 {f\left( x \right)} \,dx equals The value of c, in the Lagrange&rsquo;s Mean value theorem f(b)−f(a)b−a=f′(c)\frac{{f\left( b \right) - f\left( a \right)}}{{b - a}} = f'\left( c \right) for the function f(x)=x(x−1)(x−2)f\left( x \right) = x\left( {x - 1} \right)\left( {x - 2} \right) in the interval [0, 1/2], is If the functions f(x)f(x) and g(x)g(x) are continuous on [a,b][a, b] and differentiable on (a,b),(a, b), then in the interval (a,b),(a, b), the equation ∣f′(x)f(a)g′(x)g(a)∣=1a−b∣f(a)f(b)g(a)g(b)∣\left|\begin{array}{ll}f^{\prime}(x) & f(a) \\ g^{\prime}(x) & g(a)\end{array}\right|=\frac{1}{a-b}\left|\begin{array}{ll}f(a) & f(b) \\ g(a) & g(b)\end{array}\right|
Type at least 2 characters or jump directly:
🔓

Save your learning progress

Sign in with a free account to save your practice answers and quiz results, then return to them when you revise.