JEE MATHEMATICS MCQ: INDEFINITE INTEGRATION

1 Easy

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Understanding +4 | -1

Let

f

and

g

be two polynomials then

\int\left(f(x) g^{\prime \prime}(x)-f^{\prime \prime}(x) g(x)\right) \mathrm{d} x

is equal to (ignoring the constant of integration)

View answer and explanation

Correct option: C

f(x) g^{\prime}(x)-f^{\prime}(x) g(x)

Option C (

f(x) g^{\prime}(x)-f^{\prime}(x) g(x)

) is correct because it is the result of applying integration by parts twice to the given integral.

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