JEE MATHEMATICS MCQ: INDEFINITE INTEGRATION

1 Easy

1 of 1

Application +4 | -1

\int g(x) d x=g(x)

, then

\int g(x)\left(f(x)-f^{\prime \prime}(x)\right) d x

is equal to

View answer and explanation

Correct option: B

g(x)\left(f(x)-f^{\prime}(x)\right)+c

Option B (

g(x)(f(x)-f^{\prime}(x))+c

) is correct because integrating by parts and using the given condition

\int g(x) dx = g(x)

simplifies the expression to this result.

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