Skip to main content
Back to INDEFINITE INTEGRATION

JEE MATHEMATICS MCQ: INDEFINITE INTEGRATION

1 Medium
1 of 1
Application +4 | -1
Let f(x)=x+sin⁡xf(x)=x+\sin x. Suppose gg denotes the inverse function of ff. The value of g′(π4+12)g^{\prime}\left(\frac{\pi}{4}+\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\right) has the value equal to
View answer and explanation
Correct option: C
2−22-\sqrt{2}
Option C (2−22-\sqrt{2}) is correct because it is the value of the derivative of the inverse function gg evaluated at the given point, calculated using the derivative of the original function ff.

More Questions from INDEFINITE INTEGRATION

Practice All Chapter MCQs →
Type at least 2 characters or jump directly:
🔓

Save your learning progress

Sign in with a free account to save your practice answers and quiz results, then return to them when you revise.