JEE MATHEMATICS MCQ: FUNCTIONS

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Application +4 | -1

f(x)=\cos (\log x)

then

f(x) f(y)-\frac{1}{2}\left\{f\left(\frac{x}{y}\right)+f(x y)\right\}

is equal to:

View answer and explanation

Correct option: A

Option A (0) is correct because the expression simplifies to 0 using trigonometric identities and the given function definition.

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