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JEE MATHEMATICS MCQ: MATHEMATICAL REASONING

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Which of the following is logically equivalent to ∼(∼p→q)\sim \left( { \sim p \to q} \right) ?
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Correct option: D
∼p∧∼q\sim p \wedge \sim q
Option D (∼p∧∼q\sim p \wedge \sim q) is correct because it is the result of applying De Morgan's Law to the negation of the implication.

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