JEE MATHEMATICS MCQ: INDEFINITE INTEGRATION

1 Easy

1 of 1

Application +4 | -1

f^{\prime}(x)=3 x^2 \sin \frac{1}{x}-x \cos \frac{1}{x}, x \neq 0, f(0)=0

then the value of

{f}\left(\frac{1}{\pi}\right)

View answer and explanation

Correct option: A

Option A (0) is correct because after integrating f'(x) and applying the initial condition f(0) = 0, we find that f(1/π) = 0.

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