Skip to main content
Back to FUNCTIONS

JEE MATHEMATICS MCQ: FUNCTIONS

1 Easy
1 of 1
Analyzing +4 | -1
Let g(x)=1+x−[x]g(x)=1+x-[x] and f(x)=sgn⁡xf(x)=\operatorname{sgn} x. Then for all x,f∘g(x)x, f \circ g(x) is equal to
View answer and explanation
Correct option: B
1
Option B (1) is correct because g(x)g(x) is always greater than 0, making f(g(x))f(g(x)) equal to 1 since f(x)=sgn(x)f(x) = sgn(x).

More Questions from FUNCTIONS

Practice All Chapter MCQs →
Type at least 2 characters or jump directly:
🔓

Save your learning progress

Sign in with a free account to save your practice answers and quiz results, then return to them when you revise.