If $y=\cos ^{-1}(\cos x)$, then $y^{\prime}(x)$ is equal to

1 in $2^{\text {nd }}$ and $3^{\text {rd }}$ quadrant

-1 in $3^{\text {rd }}$ and $4^{\text {th }}$ quadrant

JEE MATHEMATICS MCQ: TANGENTS & NORMALS

1 Easy

1 of 1

Analyzing +4 | -1

y=\cos ^{-1}(\cos x)

, then

y^{\prime}(x)

is equal to

View answer and explanation

Correct option: A

1 for all

x

Option A (1 for all

x

) is correct because the derivative of the inverse cosine of cosine x simplifies to 1.

Practice All Chapter MCQs →

a

y=x^3-a x

x^2 y=1-y

x y=1-y

C

y^3-3 x y+2=0

H

\mathrm{C}

x

V

C

y

y-e^{x y}+x=0

y = f\left( x \right)

x

x = a\left( {\theta - \sin \theta } \right),\;y = a\left( {1 + \cos \theta } \right)

\theta = \left( {2k + 1} \right)\pi ,\;k \in Z