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JEE MATHEMATICS MCQ: DEFINITE INTEGRATION
1
Easy
1 of 1
Application
+4 | -1
If for all , then the value of will be equal to
View answer and explanation
Correct option: C
Option C (-1/2) is correct because differentiating the given integral equation using Leibniz's rule allows us to solve for f(x), and then evaluating f(π/6) yields -1/2.
