Skip to main content
Back to BINOMIAL THEOREM

JEE MATHEMATICS MCQ: BINOMIAL THEOREM

1 Medium
1 of 1
Application +4 | -1
For the natural numbers m,  n,  if  (1−y)m(1+y)n=1+a1y+a2y2+......+am+nym+n)m,\,\,n,\,\,\mathrm{if}\,\,{\left( {1 - y} \right)^m}{(1 + y)^n} = 1 + {a_1}y + {a_2}{y^2} + ...... + {a_{m + n}}{y^{m + n}}\mathrm{)} and a1=a2=10{a_1} = {a_2} = 10, then the value of (m+n)(m + n) is equal to
View answer and explanation
Correct option: D
80
Option D (80) is correct because by expanding the given expression and equating coefficients, we can solve for m and n, and find m + n = 80.

More Questions from BINOMIAL THEOREM

Practice All Chapter MCQs →
Type at least 2 characters or jump directly:
🔓

Save your learning progress

Sign in with a free account to save your practice answers and quiz results, then return to them when you revise.