JEE MATHEMATICS MCQ: LIMITS

1 Easy

1 of 1

Analyzing +4 | -1

\lim\limits_{x \to \frac{\pi }{2}} \frac{{\left[ {1 - \tan \left( {\frac{x}{2}} \right)} \right]\left( {1 - \sin x} \right)}}{{\left[ {1 + \tan \left( {\frac{x}{2}} \right)} \right]{{\left( {\pi - 2x} \right)}^3}}}

View answer and explanation

Correct option: C

\frac{1}{{32}}

Option C (

\frac{1}{{32}}

) is correct because, by substituting

x = \frac{\pi}{2} - h

and using trigonometric identities and limits, the expression simplifies to 1/32.

More Questions from LIMITS

Practice All Chapter MCQs →

\lim \limits_{{x \rightarrow 0}}\left(\frac{1}{x^2}-\operatorname{cosec}^2 x\right)

\lim _{x \rightarrow \frac{\pi}{2}} \frac{\cos x}{(1-\sin x)^{2 / 3}}=

\lim\limits_{h \to 0} 2\left\{ {\frac{{\sqrt 3 \sin \left( {\frac{\pi }{6} + h} \right) - \cos \left( {\frac{\pi }{6} + h} \right)}}{{\sqrt 3 h\left( {\sqrt 3 \cos \,h - \sin \,h} \right)}}} \right\}

\lim \limits_{{x \rightarrow \infty}} x\left(e^{1 / x}-1\right)

f(x)=\frac{(x+1)^7 \sqrt{1+x^2}}{\left(x^2-x+1\right)^6}

f^{\prime}(0)

\lim\limits_{n \to \infty } {\left( {1 + \sin \frac{a}{n}} \right)^n}