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JEE MATHEMATICS MCQ: STATISTICS

1 Hard

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Application +4 | -1

If a variable X takes values

0,1,2, \ldots ,n

with frequencies proportional to the binomial coefficients

^n{C_0},{\;^n}{C_1},{\;^n}{C_2}, \ldots ,{\;^n}{C_n},

then the

\mathrm{Var\;}\left( X \right)

is

View answer and explanation

Correct option: C

\frac{n}{4}

Option C (

\frac{n}{4}

) is correct because the variance of a binomial distribution with frequencies proportional to binomial coefficients is

\frac{n}{4}

.

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