JEE MATHEMATICS MCQ: BINOMIAL THEOREM

1 Easy

1 of 1

Application +4 | -1

{\left( {1 + x} \right)^n} = {C_0} + {C_1}x + {C_2}{x^2} + ...{C_n}{x^n}

, then

C_0^2 + C_1^2 + C_2^2 + C_3^2 + ... + C_n^2

is equal to

View answer and explanation

Correct option: B

\frac{{\left( {2n} \right)!}}{{n!n!}}

Option B (

\frac{{\left( {2n} \right)!}}{{n!n!}}

) is correct because it represents the sum of squares of binomial coefficients, which is equivalent to the middle term in the expansion of (1+x)⁽²ⁿ⁾.

More Questions from BINOMIAL THEOREM

Practice All Chapter MCQs →

\left({ }^{10} C_0\right)^2-\left({ }^{10} C_1\right)^2+\ldots-\left({ }^{10} C_9\right)^2+\left({ }^{10} C_{10}\right)^2

a

d

\left( {n + 1} \right)

a{C_0} - \left( {a + d} \right){C_1} + \left( {a + 2d} \right){C_2} - ... + ...

(1-x)^{201}\left(1+x+x^2\right)^{200}

\left(\frac{1}{x}+2 x\right)^n

{x^5}

\frac{{1 + {x^2}}}{{1 + x}},\left| x \right| < 1,

\left(\begin{array}{c}2 n+1 \\ 0\end{array}\right)+\left(\begin{array}{c}2 n+1 \\ 3\end{array}\right)+\left(\begin{array}{c}2 n+1 \\ 6\end{array}\right)+\ldots=170

n