JEE MATHEMATICS MCQ: LIMITS

1 Easy

1 of 1

Analyzing +4 | -1

f(x)=x^m, m

being a non-negative integer, then the value of

m

for which

f^{\prime}(\alpha+\beta)=f^{\prime}(\alpha)+f^{\prime}(\beta)

, for all

\alpha, \beta > 0

, is

View answer and explanation

Correct option: B

Option B (2) is correct. By substituting the given condition into the derivative of f(x) and comparing terms, we find that m = 2 satisfies the equation.

More Questions from LIMITS

Practice All Chapter MCQs →

\lim \limits_{{x \rightarrow 0}}\left(\frac{1}{x^2}-\operatorname{cosec}^2 x\right)

is equal to

\lim _{x \rightarrow \frac{\pi}{2}} \frac{\cos x}{(1-\sin x)^{2 / 3}}=

The value of

\lim\limits_{h \to 0} 2\left\{ {\frac{{\sqrt 3 \sin \left( {\frac{\pi }{6} + h} \right) - \cos \left( {\frac{\pi }{6} + h} \right)}}{{\sqrt 3 h\left( {\sqrt 3 \cos \,h - \sin \,h} \right)}}} \right\}

\lim \limits_{{x \rightarrow \infty}} x\left(e^{1 / x}-1\right)

is equal to If

f(x)=\frac{(x+1)^7 \sqrt{1+x^2}}{\left(x^2-x+1\right)^6}

, then the value of

f^{\prime}(0)

is equal to

\lim\limits_{n \to \infty } {\left( {1 + \sin \frac{a}{n}} \right)^n}

equals