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JEE MATHEMATICS MCQ: DEFINITE INTEGRATION

1 Easy
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Application +4 | -1
If ∫0πxf(sin⁡x)dx=A∫0π/2f(sin⁡x)dx\int\limits_{0}^\pi x f(\sin x) d x=A \int\limits_{0}^{\pi / 2} f(\sin x) d x, then AA is
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Correct option: B
π\pi
Option B (π\pi) is correct because by using the property ∫0af(x)dx=∫0af(a−x)dx\int_0^a f(x) dx = \int_0^a f(a-x) dx, the integral transforms to A∫0π/2f(sin⁡x)dxA \int_0^{\pi/2} f(\sin x) dx, where A is found to be π\pi.

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