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JEE MATHEMATICS MCQ: MEAN VALUES THEOREM
1
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Analyzing
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In [0, 1] Lagranges Mean value theorem is NOT applicable to
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Correct option: A
The correct answer is A because Lagrange's Mean Value Theorem requires the function to be differentiable, and option A is not differentiable at x = 1/2.
More Questions from MEAN VALUES THEOREM
Practice All Chapter MCQs β
If and are differentiable functions in such that 2 , then there exists such that
Assertion (A): If Rolle's theorem be applied in , then L.M.V. theorem is also applicable for .
Reason (R): Both Rolle's theorem & L.M.V. theorem can not be applied in in
The codes are given below, select the correct codes. Let be real valued function, then for The Rolleβs theorem is applicable in the interval for the function If satisfies the conditions for Rolle's theorem on , then equals The value of c, in the Lagrange’s Mean value theorem for the function in the interval [0, 1/2], is
Assertion (A): If Rolle's theorem be applied in , then L.M.V. theorem is also applicable for .
Reason (R): Both Rolle's theorem & L.M.V. theorem can not be applied in in
The codes are given below, select the correct codes. Let be real valued function, then for The Rolleβs theorem is applicable in the interval for the function If satisfies the conditions for Rolle's theorem on , then equals The value of c, in the Lagrange’s Mean value theorem for the function in the interval [0, 1/2], is
