JEE MATHEMATICS MCQ: SEQUENCE OF SERIES

1 Easy

1 of 1

Application +4 | -1

Let

x \in \left( {1,\infty } \right)

and

n

be a positive integer greater than 1. If

{f_n}\left( x \right) = \frac{n}{{\frac{1}{{{{\log }_2}x}} + \frac{1}{{{{\log }_3}x}} + \ldots + \frac{1}{{{{\log }_n}x}}}}

, then

{\left( {n!} \right)^{{f_n}\left( x \right)}}

equals to

View answer and explanation

Correct option: B

{x^n}

Option B (

{x^n}

) is correct because it is the simplified form of the expression after applying logarithm properties.

More Questions from SEQUENCE OF SERIES

Practice All Chapter MCQs →

A=\{1,2,3\}, B=\{3,4\}, C=\{4,5,6\}

{A} \cup({B} \cap {C})

A-(B \cap C)

(B \cup C)-A

a,b,c

a,x,b

b,y,c

{x^2},{b^2},{y^2}

P(x)=1-x+x^2-x^3+\ldots+x^{2012}

y

Q(y)=a_0+a_1 y+\ldots+a_{2012} y^{2012}

y=x-2

\sum\limits_{{i=0}}^{2012} a_i

\log \left(\frac{5 c}{a}\right), \log \left(\frac{3 b}{5 c}\right)

\log \left(\frac{a}{3 b}\right)

A P

a, b

G P

a, b, c

\frac{3}{4}