Skip to main content
Back to BINOMIAL THEOREM

JEE MATHEMATICS MCQ: BINOMIAL THEOREM

1 Medium
1 of 1
Analyzing +4 | -1
If (1+x)n=C0+C1x+C2x2+…+Cnxn(1+x)^n=C_0+C_1 x+C_2 x^2+\ldots+C_n x^n, then (C0+C1)(C1+C2)…(Cn−1+Cn)\left(C_0+C_1\right)\left(C_1+C_2\right) \ldots\left(C_{n-1}+C_n\right) =k⋅C1C2C3…Cn=k \cdot C_1 C_2 C_3 \ldots C_n, where kk is equal to
View answer and explanation
Correct option: A
(n+1)nn!\frac{(n+1)^n}{n !}
Option A ((n+1)nn!\frac{{(n+1)^n}}{{n !}}) is correct because the given expression can be simplified using binomial coefficient identities.

More Questions from BINOMIAL THEOREM

Practice All Chapter MCQs →
Type at least 2 characters or jump directly:
🔓

Save your learning progress

Sign in with a free account to save your practice answers and quiz results, then return to them when you revise.