JEE MATHEMATICS MCQ: BINOMIAL THEOREM

1 Easy

1 of 1

Application +4 | -1

If the middle term in the expansion of

\left(\frac{1}{x}+x \sin x\right)^{10}

equals to

7 \frac{7}{8}

then

x

is equal to

(n \in I)

View answer and explanation

Correct option: C

n \pi+(-1)^n \frac{\pi}{6}

Option C (

n \pi+(-1)^n \frac{\pi}{6}

) is correct because it is the general solution for x when the middle term of the binomial expansion equals

7 \frac{7}{8}

More Questions from BINOMIAL THEOREM

Practice All Chapter MCQs →

\left({ }^{10} C_0\right)^2-\left({ }^{10} C_1\right)^2+\ldots-\left({ }^{10} C_9\right)^2+\left({ }^{10} C_{10}\right)^2

a

d

\left( {n + 1} \right)

a{C_0} - \left( {a + d} \right){C_1} + \left( {a + 2d} \right){C_2} - ... + ...

(1-x)^{201}\left(1+x+x^2\right)^{200}

\left(\frac{1}{x}+2 x\right)^n

{x^5}

\frac{{1 + {x^2}}}{{1 + x}},\left| x \right| < 1,

\left(\begin{array}{c}2 n+1 \\ 0\end{array}\right)+\left(\begin{array}{c}2 n+1 \\ 3\end{array}\right)+\left(\begin{array}{c}2 n+1 \\ 6\end{array}\right)+\ldots=170

n