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JEE MATHEMATICS MCQ: SEQUENCE OF SERIES

1 Easy
1 of 1
Application +4 | -1
The value of

(1+a2x22  !+a4x44  !+…)2−(ax+a3x33  !+a5x55  !+…)2,  is{\left( {1 + \frac{{{a^2}{x^2}}}{{2\;!}} + \frac{{{a^4}{x^4}}}{{4\;!}} + \ldots } \right)^2} - {\left( {ax + \frac{{{a^3}{x^3}}}{{3\;!}} + \frac{{{a^5}{x^5}}}{{5\;!}} + \ldots } \right)^2},\;\mathrm{is}
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Correct option: D
1
Option D (1) is correct because the expression simplifies to 1 using the exponential identities.

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