JEE MATHEMATICS MCQ: DEFINITE INTEGRATION

1 Easy

1 of 1

Analyzing +4 | -1

I_n=\int_0^{\pi / 4} \tan ^n x d x

, then

\frac{1}{I_2+I_4}, \frac{1}{I_3+I_5}, \frac{1}{I_4+I_6}, \ldots

. Form

View answer and explanation

Correct option: A

an A.P.

Option A (an A.P.) is correct because the reciprocals of the given expression form an arithmetic progression with a common difference of 1.

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